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NASB | John 16:30 "Now we know that You know all things, and have no need for anyone to question You; by this we believe that You came from God." |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 16:30 "Now we know that You know all things, and have no need for anyone to question You; because of this we believe [without any doubt] that you came from God." |
Bible Question:
We have already discussed John 9:24 on the forum, but I was comparing that verse with John 16:30 today in my reading. "We know that" is important to this book and his other letters. 1 John 3:5, "And you KNOW THAT He appeared in order to take away sins; and in Him there is no sin." I believe that the Greek includes one more pronoun; in order "that our sins He might take away". Can there be any doubt that this Man was not a sinner? Why does the Amplified feel it necessary to say that "Because of this we believe that you [sic] [really] came from God."? If He really came from God lets say with John 16:30, NASB, "by this we believe that You came from God." John 16:27, "for the Father Himself loves you, because you have loved Me, and have believed that I came forth from God." From the heart, Ray |
Bible Answer: Greetings Ray! May I throw a wrench in the works? :-) 1 John 3:5 actually contains several more pronouns (either implied or explict): "And you know that this one He has been made known, that the sins He might take away, and sin in Him not it is." So, there are a total of 6 pronouns in these verse ('this one' being one word in Greek). I didn't quite follow what part of which verse you were questioning the translation of? Could you be a little more specific? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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Ray | ||
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Morant61 | ||
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Morant61 |