Prior Book | Prior Chapter | Prior Verse | Next Verse | Next Chapter | Next Book | Viewing NASB and Amplified 2015 | |
NASB | John 1:18 No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 1:18 No one has seen God [His essence, His divine nature] at any time; the [One and] only begotten God [that is, the unique Son] who is in the intimate presence of the Father, He has explained Him [and interpreted and revealed the awesome wonder of the Father]. [Prov 8:30] |
Bible Question:
Hi all, I was reading some of the comments about John 1:18, but they were a couple of years back, and notice those that commented haven't commented for a year or two, except Tim Morgan. Anyway, any comments as to why different Bibles use Son instead of God in this verse. ho monogenes gios, instead of "theos". My NKJV Greek English Interlinear has an explanation but ultimately, why are different mss so different? The NIV's translation has to about the worse I have seen; "No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father's side, has made him known." True it is not a "literal" translation but come on! Notice the New American Standard's: No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained (Him.)" Now I can understand that one. And my second question is what does (monogenous) "only-begotten" in this verse mean? Let's get into it in depth. Our having access to lexicons on the "Net" enables us to "reason" on the semantics of various orignal-language words. Any comments?, because this verse shows me how John 1:1 should accurately be translated not colored by theology nor bias, but allowing theology to play a legitimate role in our translations. I'm in no hurry, just sincere and enjoying "Bible study" (both learning and sharing what I have learned). Truthfinder |
Bible Answer: Hi Truthfinder, Not only the verse John 1:18 in the NIV, sounds bad, but so does the understanding of it. They say: God the One and Only. An explicit declaration of Christ's deity, see vv. 1:14 and notes; 3:16, has made him known. Sometimes in the OT people are said to have seen God, Ex 24:9-11. But we are also told that no one can see God and live, Ex 32:20. Therefore, since no human being can see God as he really is, those who saw God saw him in a form he took on himself temporarily for the occasion. Now, however, Christ has made him known. I'm glad you pointed this out, for my way of thinking is not this. I don't really think, those who saw God, saw him in a form he took on himself temporarily. What are your views on that statement? Why would God Jehovah have to take on a different form, when he had Jesus, his Son on earth? This here doesn't make any kind of sense to me!! |