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NASB | Matthew 19:5 and said, 'FOR THIS REASON A MAN SHALL LEAVE HIS FATHER AND MOTHER AND BE JOINED TO HIS WIFE, AND THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH'? |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Matthew 19:5 and said, 'FOR THIS REASON A MAN SHALL LEAVE HIS FATHER AND MOTHER AND SHALL BE JOINED INSEPARABLY TO HIS WIFE, AND THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH'? [Gen 1:27; 2:24; Mark 10:7] |
Bible Question (short): Good point |
Question (full): Ebrain, You make a very intersting point. You are right to conclude that one of the parties is not a christian. The girl is a christian and the man is not. I guess the critical question I am asking is did God join them together or did the state join them together? Or more importantly, Does God recognize this joining as binding because the state recognized it as binding? What makes this case different is that both parties were breaking the law by pretending they were really believing and intending to uphold the vow they were taking. They both were not only unwilling in their consciounce to "join" together, but they didn't believe they were joining together. It was an intentionally deceptive vow to the state in order to avoid deportation. If one christian makes a vow to marry a nonbeliever in good conscience (ie willingly and honestly), though it would be in clear violation to God's instructions, I think God would still hold them bound to that "joining" even if God didn't will it. The believer's disobedient act would have tragic consequences----a miserable marriage, an unequal union. Are you saying that all those believers out there who have disobediently married unbelievers aren't really married in the sight of God? In these recent posts, from my understanding, the argument has been made that since God instructs us to obey the governing authorities (Romans 13), the couple was indeed married in God's eyes even though the governing authority was deceived and their own law broken. That is, since man's law recognizes it as a true marriage(a piece of paper was signed), then so does God. My critical question is since man's law was clearly broken, does God still consider that illegal broken law as lawful and therefore binding? The state never found out that the law was broken, but if they did, the sham marriage would never have been recongnized as lawfully binding. So if the sham marriage would have been dissolved would God then be bound to dissolve it as well? I am arguing that since God knew it was a sham, He never joined them to begin with even though the state did so through deception. In other words, God is not subject to man's law, but rather man's law is subject to God's higher law. I do not believe God sanctioned this union since He knew it was not genuine. Mark 2:27 Jesus said to them, "The Sabbath was made for man, and not man for the Sabbath. I should also mention there were additional critical details about this coulple that could help you understand the circumstances better.I will share them on a separate post because there is not enough room here. |