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NASB | Matthew 19:5 and said, 'FOR THIS REASON A MAN SHALL LEAVE HIS FATHER AND MOTHER AND BE JOINED TO HIS WIFE, AND THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH'? |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Matthew 19:5 and said, 'FOR THIS REASON A MAN SHALL LEAVE HIS FATHER AND MOTHER AND SHALL BE JOINED INSEPARABLY TO HIS WIFE, AND THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH'? [Gen 1:27; 2:24; Mark 10:7] |
Bible Question (short): state vs God |
Question (full): I agree that part of the validity of marriage is when it is publically recognized, but the central core of the covenant vow is when the 2 parties vow to enter into this contract not just with their words, but with their hearts. I'm not referring here to the feeling of love. There have been a plethora of people who did not feel love for one another, but married with the intention to love. That is, they truly entered into a covenant in which they both agreed to uphold. These two friends of mine essentially purposely lied to the state when they promised what they promised. In their hearts, they intentionally defrauded the state, but not God. They both were in agreement that this was a false promise and even told God that they did not mean what they were about to do. They did not believe they were entering into a covenant before God. I realize that according to the state and to the law, they did marry, but before God did they really? If you are going to base a true biblical marriage soley on the recognition of the state, then what do you do with gay marriages that are recognized legally by the state? I am not saying that there is not a crucial legal dimension neccessary for marriage to be valid (i.e public,witnessed declaration), but I am saying that the most fundamental dimension to what makes a marriage valid in the eyes of God is when the two parties truly agree in their hearts that they genuinely intend and promise to hold up this covenant. If they simply mouthed the words, but did not inwardly intend to uphold them how can God recognize it as valid? |