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NASB | Psalm 104:8 The mountains rose; the valleys sank down To the place which You established for them. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Psalm 104:8 The mountains rose, the valleys sank down To the place which You established for them. |
Bible Question (short): Kalos, the differences are not minor. |
Question (full): Kalos, Now, to the other comment in your last paragraph in relation to my primary question concerning Psa. 104:8 : the difference between the translation in the NAS and those in the KJ and the NIV ARE NOT, "MINOR variations". Your screen name may mean, "honest", but, to put it bluntly, you did NOT honestly, conscientiously, and attentively read my primary question and my explanation of the question to understand it and answer it. To understand it, you need to read it carefully. To answer it with understanding, you need to acknowledge what it says. So, I guess I have to lead you, since you can't read and study it on your own. Look at verses 8 and 9 of Psa. 104 in the NAS, the KJ, and the NIV. NAS 8 "The mountains rose; the valleys sank down to the place which Thou didst establish for them. 9 Thou didst set a boundary that they may not pass over; that they may not return to cover the earth." KJ 8 "They go up by the mountains; they go down by the valleys unto the place which thou hast founded for them. 9 Thou hast set a bound that they may not pass over, that they turn not again to cover the earth." NIV 8 "they flowed over the mountains, they went down into the valleys, to the place you assigned for them. 9 You set a boundary they cannot cross; never again will they cover the earth." Q1: Do you see in verse 8 in the NAS, that the mountains rose up and the valleys sank down? Q2: Do you see in verse 8 in the KJ and NIV, that "they" went up, that is, flowed over, the mountains and went down into the valleys? Q3: Do you see that by the word "they" in verse 8, the KJ and NIV are referring, in context, to the waters of the deep in verses 6-7? Q4: Did the original writer of this Psalm mean that the mountains went up and the valleys went down, as in the NAS, or did he mean that the waters went up and down the mountains and valleys, as in the KJ and NIV? Q5: Do you see that the NAS has changed the subject of this passage (verses 5-9) in verse 8 from the waters of the context to mountains and valleys? Q6: Do you see that in verses 6-7, God covers the earth with deep water over the mountains; that at the sound of His voice the waters flee and hurry away, exposing the mountains; that God's action is with the waters, not the mountains; and that He lowers the waters, not raises the mountains over the waters? Q7: Do you see that the NAS in verse 8 does not agree with the context of verses 6-7? Q8: Do you see that in the NAS the word, "them", at the end of verse 8 refers to the mountains and the valleys that rose and sank at the beginning of the verse? Q9: Do you see that the word, "they", in verse 9 of the NAS, agrees with the word, "them", at the end of verse 8, and therefore refers to the mountains and valleys, the subject that the NAS changed to in verse 8? Q10: Do you see that by changing the subject in verse 8, the NAS has changed the meaning of verse 9 by saying that, "they", the mountains and valleys of verse 8, "may not return to cover the earth"? Q11: Do you see that that wording in the NAS implies or teaches that mountains and valleys should not be covering the earth today or ever again? Q12: Do you see that that implication or teaching does not make sense and does not agree with the context? Q13: Do you see that in the KJ and NIV, the word, "them", at the end of verse 8 refers to the waters of the deep in the context of verses 6-7? Q14: Do you see that the word, "they", in verse 9 of the KJ and NIV, agrees with the word, "them", at the end of verse 8, and therefore refers to the waters of the deep in the context of verses 6-7? Q15: Do you see that by keeping the subject of the context, the waters, in verse 8, the KJ and NIV make the meaning of verse 9 clear when it says, "never again will they cover the earth"?Q16: Do you see that the wording of the KJ and NIV agrees with the context of verse 6, which says that God covered the mountains of the earth with the waters of the deep and the context in verses 8-9 where He says He will never "again" cover the mountains of the earth with the waters of the deep? Q17: Do you see, then, that the translation of the KJ and NIV agree with the context of this passage, but the translation of the NAS does not? The difference in translation is not "minor". It concerns:1, the correct understanding of the passage by the reader; 2, agreement with the context; 3, the change of the meaning of a verse; 4, and the support of a doctrine that is wrong, that is, the mountains and valleys we have on earth today were made, they "rose" and "sank down", when the earth was covered with water. Kalos, you wrote in your profile that you, "believe in the plenary inspiration and inerrancy of the Scriptures", but so far, your light treatment of my primary question does not reflect that belief. Please carefully read the above and tell me if you agree with those questions. Dennis |