Subject: what is speaking in tongues? |
Bible Note: Hi John, As I am also searching for an answer to the question of speaking in tongues, I am interested to read your views. I have a couple of questions though, because I am not yet convinced that tongues were meant only for the early church and do not apply to us today. In response to your use of 1 Corinthians 13:8-- I don't think that this can be successfully interpreted to mean that tongues have passed away. First of all, knowledge has not passed away, so why should we assume that tongues has? Also, 1 cor 13:10 goes on to say that "But when that which is perfect has come, then that which is in part will be done away." Verse 12 also says "For now we see in a mirror, dimly, but then face to face. Now I know in part, but then I shall know jsut as I also am known." So the time when these things such as tongues and konwledge will pass away seems to be referring to when we will see God face to face, not now. Also, you mentioned that it would be unscriptural to say that tongues-speaking is anything but a known language. However, 1 cor 13:1 refers to speaking "with the tongues of men and of angels", implying that one can speak in a tongue unkown to men, that of angels. Please let me know what you think, I have been pondering this issue for a long time and have not yet been convinced on either side. I did think the quote of 1 Cor 12:13 was good, i have never thought of it in this context. God bless, Derek |