Bible Question:
This is a subject I hadn't thought about until recently when someone brought it up to me. Since God did not condemn David or Solomon nor any other Old Testament man for having more than one wife, where did the teaching come from that a man should only have one wife? And since God didn't condemn it then, is it actually wrong? Personally I'm a bit repulsed by the idea, but that may be because I have been taught that it IS wrong. I was told that a man in a muliple marriage can easily accept the NT verses where it says: "let the husband render to his wife..." "let each man have his own wife..." "the husband is head of the wife..." and even "the two shall become one flesh..." because it is talking about the relationship between TWO people, and the husband should be that to each of his wives individually. Further comments by all would be appreciated. |
Bible Answer: God made His plan for marriage plain. Polygamy in Israel was the exception, not the rule. "let each man have his own wife..." That phrase alone would convince me that God's purpose was one man and one woman. However, I would add that the references concerning God's desire for marriage are in the singular. Steve |