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NASB | Genesis 6:2 that the sons of God saw that the daughters of men were beautiful; and they took wives for themselves, whomever they chose. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Genesis 6:2 that the sons of God saw that the daughters of men were beautiful and desirable; and they took wives for themselves, whomever they chose and desired. |
Bible Question:
My question is more in a statement form: A couple of days ago I had this most interesting thoughts while reading Genesis 3:16a "To the woman He said, "I will greatly multiply Your pain in childbirth, In pain you shall bring forth children;" 3:20 "Now the man called his wife's name Eve, because she was the mother of all the living." 6:2 "that the sons of God saw that the daughters of men were beautiful; and they took wives for themselves, whomever they chose." 6:4 "The Nephilim were on the earth in those days, and also afterward, when the sons of God came in to the daughters of men, and they bore children to them. Those were the mighty men who were of old, men of renown." The thought that came to me is that, the "sons of God" mentioned in Genesis 6:2, 4 are the children of Adam and Eve that were born prior to the Fall. I believe the reason for this thought is because of how Genesis 3:16 and 3:20 are actually stated. The way I read Genesis 3:16, it implies that birth already preceded that of Cain and Able. For, when God says He will "greatly multiply Your pain in childbirth," to me that is a connotation that there was already pain in childbirth for Eve. Just because there was no mention of children prior to this does not indicate that there were none. Also, in Genesis 3:20, the verb used is "was"-not that she will be. Most versions of the Bible that I've read, save the NIV places the reading at "will be." I don't know if this is literally correct since the NASB is touted as the most literal. If this is the case, then the way that Genesis 6 begins tells me this. Verses 2 and 4 from what I read gives me this feedback. I know "The Nephilim" is mentioned in Genesis 6:4, but I don't know why except to give us a frame of reference of some sort. The highlighted text from verse 6:4 (above) don't have any direct implication with the Nephilim that I can see. I would appreciate all the help that you can give me with this. |
Bible Answer: Q: Where did Cain get his wife? A: Genesis informs us that after the birth of Seth (their third son following Cain and Abel) Adam and Eve "begot [other] sons and daughters" (Gen. 5:4). The exact number is not mentioned, but you can imagine in 930 years (the life-span of Adam), there must have been quite a few. These children intermarried and during their long life spans mentioned in the rest of Genesis 5, they also had a multitude of children. Everyone that Cain had contact with would have been a descendent of his parents. Whether he married a sister (keep in mind, the biblical command against marrying close relatives was not given until thousands of years later during the time of Moses) or someone more distantly related, Cain's wife must have been a relative. Since the genetic make-up of the first human beings would have been more tolerant of near-relatives mating, this would not have created the problems that it would today. (www.backtothebible.org/bigquestions/bq_bigquestions.html) |