Results 81 - 100 of 7096
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Makarios Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
81 | why are the twelve tribes of isreal diff | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 225883 | ||
Greetings Ariel Levin! Yes, I apologize: I should re-examine the differences between these two passages more thoroughly. First of all, the context couldn't be more different: in Genesis 49, Jacob (Israel) is giving the blessing to each of his sons before he dies, and foretelling with a bit of prophesy as to how it will go with them in the generations to come. In Revelation 7:4-8, the apostle John is relating to us the vision that he received regarding the sealing of the 144,000, stating that 12,000 are from each tribe listed. Since the context in both passages is so drastically different, a person could not look at both passages seriously and come to a conclusion of contradiction with any supporting logic. Who is to say that each tribe necessarily needs to be mentioned in Revelation 7? Secondly, why is studying the Bible within the context so important? In Kay Arthur's book "How to Study Your Bible" (page 18), she writes, "The word context means "that which goes with the text." In general, then, context is the environment in which something dwells, the setting in which something exists or occurs. Remember the tadpole in the creek? Context is the creek!" David L. Thompson in his book "Bible Study That Works" (page 32) writes the following, "So, assuming a context of prayer, the first step in good Bible study is observation. And one must see two things. First, one must see what is there; a matter of the contents. What is the book or unit at hand actually about: sin or grace, prayer or faith, Abraham or David, creation or second coming? These are matters of content, of observing what was said." Therefore, context is determined by carefully observing what is repeated in the text and seeing how it all relates. On a side note: this 128 page book, "Bible Study That Works" was actually the textbook as specified by the syllabus in my 'Methods in Bible Study' course at Indiana Wesleyan University more than a decade or so ago. Perhaps a good online resource that would explain context would be: http://www.spiritandtruth.org/teaching/Bible_Interpretation/03_Context/03_Context_Notes.pdf. In conclusion, you can understand why a narrative listing of the tribes of Israel (Genesis 49) would be different from an apocalyptic listing (Revelation 7:4-8) of the tribes of Israel without coming to a conclusion that there is a contradiction. Good observation in regards to the tribe of Levi: in Genesis 49, this tribe had clearly not been as yet 'set apart' for their special service to God. I hope that this helps! Blessings to you, Makarios |
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82 | Book on Hebrew Language | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 225963 | ||
There is a great book on the Hebrew language called "IN HIS OWN WORDS." Are there any reactions to this book? | ||||||
83 | I am asking for both,Latin ,English . | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 225962 | ||
Greetings Brad! According to http://www.blueletterbible.org/faq/nbi/273.html: "How did the Bible become separated into chapters and verses? "When the books of the Bible were originally written there were no such things as chapters or verses. Each book was written without any breaks from the beginning to the end. "They Have Been Divided For Convenience "The chapter and verse divisions were added to the Bible for the sake of convenience. There is no authoritative basis for the divisions we now find. "The Chapters Added In The Thirteenth Century A man named Stephen Langton divided the Bible into chapters in the year A.D. 1227. Langton was a professor at the University of Paris and later he became the Archbishop of Canterbury. "The Verses Were Added In The Sixteenth Century Robert Stephanus (Stephens), a French printer, divided the verses for his Greek New Testament. It was published in 1551. "The First Bible With Chapter And Verse Divisions The first entire Bible in which these chapter and verse divisions were used was Stephen’s edition of the Latin Vulgate (1555). The first English New Testament to have both chapter and verse divisions was the Geneva Bible (1560). "Fortunately Jewish scholars have followed the way of dividing the Hebrew Scripture into chapters and verses. ... "This Is Not What the Authors Intended "The original authors of Scripture did not intend that their writings be divided up into chapters or verses. They intended that the books be read straight through from the beginning. A number of the books of Scripture can be read through in one sitting. This is the best way to discover what the author is trying to say. Dividing up the Scripture into chapters and verses encourages people to read only small parts at a time. This is not always helpful. "Summary "In the original text of the various books of the Bible there are no such things as chapter and verse divisions. They were added later for the sake of convenience. While they are helpful, they are not authoritative in any sense of the term. In fact, they can cause a number of problems. Chapter and verse divisions give the impression that the Scripture should be read and studied in bits and pieces. This is not what the original authors intended. The entire context must always be considered. Consequently the chapter and verse divisions should be ignored when one attempts to properly interpret the entire message of Scripture." Blessings to you, Makarios |
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84 | Book on Hebrew Language | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 225964 | ||
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85 | Did God the Father create Jesus | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 226005 | ||
Greetings jonathandunlap30@gmail.com, "Does the fact that Jesus said no one knows the day or hour of His return except the Father mean that He is less than God Almighty (Mark 13:32)?" "No. But explaining this issue requires a little theological background. Though a bit complex, the eternal Son of God was, prior to the Incarnation, one in person and nature (wholly divine). In the Incarnation, He bacame two in nature (divine and human) while remaining one person. "Thus Christ at the same moment in time had what seem to be contradictory qualities. He was finite and yet infinite, weak and yet omnipotent, increasing in knowledge and yet omniscient, limited to being in one place at one time and yet omnipresent. It was only from His humanity that Christ could say that He didn't know the day or hour of His return. In His humanity, Jesus was not omniscient but was limited in understanding jsut as all human beings are. If Jesus had been speaking from the perspective of His divinity, He wouldn't have said the same thing. "Scripture is abundantly clear that in His divine nature, Jesus is omniscient- just as omniscient as the Father is. The apostle John said that Jesus "did not need man's testimony about man, for he knew what was in a man" (John 2:25). Jesus' disciples said, "Now we can see that you know all things" (16:30). After the Resurrection, when Jesus asked Peter for the third time if Peter loved Him, Peter responded: "Lord, you know all things; you know that I love you" (21:17). Jesus knew just where the fish were in the water (Luke 5:4-6; John 21:6-11), and He knew just which fish contained the coin (Matthew 17:27). He knows the Father as the Father knows Him (Matthew 11:27; John 7:29; 8:55; 10:15; 17:25)." (1) So, Christ in His deity is omniscient. It is only from the perspective of His humanity that He did not know the time of the Second Coming. Source: (1) pg. 94, The Complete Book of Bible Answers, 1997 by Ron Rhodes, Harvest House Publishers Blessings to you, Makarios |
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86 | Does God hate the devil? | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 226091 | ||
Greetings JKCOOK, You ask, "Does God hate the devil?" Scripture clearly states that God created all things, including the angels (Genesis 1:1; 2:1). Now, if God did not originally create Satan (or the devil) as an evil being, but he became that way due to disobedience, like mankind, then does that mean that God hates the devil? I believe that God, who does not desire that anyone should perish, offers a 'no-strings attached' invitation to all who would place their faith in Him, and those who place their faith in Him will be saved. I don't believe that God "hates" those who will perish in their sins or even the Adversary himself (the devil), but He will judge them for their deeds (as well as Satan - Rev. 20:10). Blessings to you, Makarios |
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87 | Did God the Father create Jesus | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 226094 | ||
Greetings DD4Truth, Good questions! 1) 1 Cor. 11:3 - Just in what sense is God the "head" of Christ? Actually, this verse has absolutely nothing to do with inferiority or superiority of one person over another; rather, it has to do with patterns of authority. Example: If husband and wife are both created in God's image (Gen. 1:26-28) and said to be "one" in Christ (Gal. 3:28), then husband and wife can be completely equal in terms of their nature, but assume different places in a functional hierarchy (1 Cor. 11:3). In the same way, the Father and Son are equal in their divine being (Jesus said "I and the Father are one" - John 10:30), even though Jesus is functionally under the Father's headship (1 Cor. 11:3). 2) 1 Cor. 15:24-28 - The Son will be made subject to the Father in the sense that God the Father is the administrative Head (see answer to #1 above). This verse does not suggest that the Son is in any way inferior to the Father. All three persons of the Trinity are equal in deity. 3) Matt. 12:32 - Basically, whoever blasphemes against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven and the person is guilty of a sin that not even eternity can wipe out. If we are to understand what this means we must first understand the circumstances in which it was said. It was said by Jesus when the Scribes and Pharisees had declared that the cures He wrought were not from God's power, but from the power of the devil. Now, the Holy Spirit reveals God's Truth (2 Peter 1:21) and enables men to recognize the Truth (John 14:26). If a person believes in Christ, so long as he hates his sin even if he cannot leave it completely, even in the mud and the filth, he or she can still be forgiven. It is only when a person has a hardness of heart in such a way that the calling of Christ means absolutely nothing to them; they have shut themselves out forever from the love of God - then, even the Resurrection of Christ is unable to move their heart. This is the sin against the Holy Spirit that cannot be forgiven. So, those who say that Christ did miracles from the power of the devil rather than the power of God - it is of this very same hardness of heart that can blind a man to look at the incarnate love of God and think that it was the 'incarnate' power of Satan. In conclusion, in no way is the Son or the Holy Spirit inferior to God the Father in deity. All three persons of the Trinity are equal in deity, but assume different functions within a functional hierarchy (1 Cor. 11:3). I hope this helps! Blessings to you, Makarios |
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88 | what book of bible was written first | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 226096 | ||
Greetings Assata, You stated, "what was the first book actually written. although genesis is first in the bible it's was not the first written." Do you have any substantial proof that would support the notion that Genesis was not actually written first? The Book of Job could be a contender, but even Job contains clues (see 1:15,17) that could make it later than Genesis. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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89 | protect and defend | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 226579 | ||
Greetings Pakman, You asked, "bible verses concerning protecting and defending your wife." Here is a possibility: Boaz and Ruth - Ruth 2:4-22 Blessings to you, Makarios |
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90 | What man gambled his garments and sheets | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 226683 | ||
Greetings Shannon034, You asked, "What man gambled his garments and sheets in the Bible and what caused him to lose the gable?" This question sounds like it came straight out of homework, and not an original, or genuine, question about the Bible. The closest thing I can find to an answer would be John 19:23-24. It is there that I recommend you search to find the answer. As a pastor's son who has been involved in countless Bible studies, classes, sword drills, exams, memorizations, and college exams at Christian University as well as - what seems as - neverending study in apologetics and in the Bible every single day, I am no stranger to these types of "Bible questions" from homework. These are designed to prompt you to search and find the answer for yourself in Scripture. I suppose if I were trying to answer you with all integrity, I really should not be providing any answer to you at all; but simply pointing you in the direction of scripture - to keep my OWN integrity. Please consider this as a warning, and search the scriptures on your own, only consulting this Forum as a last resort, with your own honest, genuine question. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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91 | Explain the TRINITY | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 226874 | ||
Greetings BoJac1, The 1689 Baptist Confession of Faith explains God and the Holy Trinity in the following way: "II. God and the Holy Trinity 1. The Lord our God is the one and only living and true God; Whose subsistence is in and of Himself - Who is infinite in being and perfection; Whose essence cannot be comprehended by any but Himself; - Who is a most pure spirit, invisible, without body, parts, or passions - Who only has immortality - Who dwells in the light which no man can approach, Who is immutable, immense, eternal, incomprehensible, almighty, in every way infinite, most holy, most wise, most free, most absolute; - Who works all things according to the counsel of His own immutable and most righteous will, for His own glory; - Who is most loving, gracious, merciful, longsuffering, and abundant in goodness and truth; - Who forgives iniquity, transgression, and sin; - Who is the rewarder of those who diligently seek Him; - and Who, at the same time, is most just and terrible in His judgements, hating all sin and Who will by no means clear the guilty. 2. God, having all life, glory, goodness, blessedness, in and from Himself, is unique in being all- sufficient, both in Himself and to Himself, not standing in need of any creature which He has made, nor deriving any glory from such. On the contrary, it is God Who manifests His own glory in them, through them, to them and upon them. He is the only fountain of all being; from Whom, through Whom, and to Whom all things exist and move. He has completely sovereign dominion over all creatures, to do through them, for them, or to them whatever He pleases. In His sight all things are open and manifest; His knowledge is infinite, infallible, and not dependent on the creature. Therefore, nothing is for Him contingent or uncertain. He is most holy in all His counsels, in all His works, and in all His commands. To Him is due from angels and men whatever worship, service, or obedience, they owe as creatures to the Creator, and whatever else He is pleased to require from them. 3. In this divine and infinite Being there are three subsistences, the Father, the Word or Son, and the Holy Spirit. All are one in substance, power, and eternity; each having the whole divine essence, yet this essence being undivided. The Father was not derived from any other being; He was neither brought into being by, nor did He issue from any other being. The Son is eternally begotten of the Father. The Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father and the Son. All three are infinite, without beginning, and are therefore only one God, Who is not to be divided in nature and being, but distinguished by several peculiar relative properties, and also their personal relations. This doctrine of the Trinity is the foundation of all our communion with God, and our comfortable dependence on Him." (posted with the help of Theophilos Bible Software - www.theophilos.sk) Blessings to you, Makarios |
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92 | gods blessing goes to younger not older | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 226922 | ||
Greetings Chilis, You asked: What are the incidences in the Old Testament where the youngest was given the blessing over the older? * Abel over Cain (Genesis 4:4-5) * Japheth over Ham (Genesis 9:22-28) * Isaac over Ishmael (Genesis 17:16-21) * Jacob over Esau (Genesis 27:36) * Ephraim over Manasseh (Genesis 49:17-20) * Joseph over the rest of his brothers (Genesis 49:22-26), and later, Judah (Genesis 49:10) * Moses over Aaron (Exodus 5:27-30) * David over his brothers (1 Samuel 16:6-13) * Solomon over Adonijah (1 Kings 1:17-30) These are all that I can think of so far. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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93 | gods blessing goes to younger not older | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 226950 | ||
Greetings Cheagan! In Chilis's original question, they actually asked for Old Testament references. But thank you for the input! Blessings to you, Makarios |
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94 | Could this be the anti-Christ? | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 226996 | ||
Greetings Justme, You asked, "I heard today someone say anti Christ is the Imam. Is there any reason to think so?" Answer: No. --Makarios |
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95 | when seeking forgiveness causes pain | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 227005 | ||
Greetings slm08, You asked, "If asking for forgiveness from someone and offering reparation causes that person further discomfort of hurts them, what does the Bible say to do in this instance?" If you have truly repented of your sin and asked for forgiveness, but the person who is wronged is further discomforted by your offer, then perhaps they just need a little more time to get over it, depending on what it was. If time goes on and you need to be forgiven to be at peace, then perhaps you could seek out the advice of your Pastor. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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96 | Is this free will? | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 227136 | ||
Greetings Believer_1! You asked a question about 'free will', or also known as Calvinism vs. Arminianism (or Predestination vs. Free Will). This subject has been brought up and discussed many, many times at this Forum; I recommend the following threads - #368, 960, 1308, 5455, 6540, 13553, 18903, 41650. Please review the above threads as I am confident that you will see that there is hardly any new such material that could be added to such a potentially divisive topic at this Forum. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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97 | Scriptures about men and women | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 227158 | ||
Greetings Hattie, You asked, "What sections or verses in the Bible refer to men and women not being allowed to work togethr, etc. without being married. I've never heard of this before." I am also unable to find any such Biblical reference to men and women not being able to work together unless they are married. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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98 | are animals saved like humans | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 227231 | ||
Greetings Vicki Tracy, You ask, "are animals saved like humans?" There is no Biblical evidence to suggest that any other creature other than man has the opportunity to place their faith in Christ and be saved. Although certain passages, such as Isaiah 11:6 and 65:25 speak of animals and man dwelling together in perfect harmony in the Millennial Kingdom, there is no Scriptural evidence to indicate that any other being other than mankind has any capacity to place 'faith' in Christ. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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99 | describe the events surrounding the deat | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 227346 | ||
Greetings Shahbaz-MTh student, There are two prominent people in the Bible named "Saul"; one of which was King of Israel and the other of which was also known as Paul (Acts 13:9). The death of Saul, the King of Israel, is chronicled in 1 Samuel 28-30 and 1 Chronicles 10. The death of Saul, who was also known as Paul (the apostle), is described by the historian Eusebius as having taken place in Rome, and beheaded for his faith by order of Nero. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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100 | Evidence for "easter"? | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 227348 | ||
Greetings Justme, You asked, "Where in Scripture does it explain why we call Resurrection Sunday, easter? Am I under the misunderstanding that eastar was a fertility goddess. If there Scriptual evidence that earChristians celebrated the resurrection of Jesus Christ?" There is no such place in Scripture that provides an example where any believer in Christ called any holiday "Easter." The current practice of honoring 'Resurrection Sunday' as 'Easter Sunday' has arisen from church tradition, not directly from scripture. The secular, paganistic practices that you are referring to were adopted by the Catholic church in the middle ages in such a way (could be seen as a subtle attempt) to 'relieve' the pagans of their own festivals and holy days by reforming them in a 'Christian image.' After years of history and tradition, an examination of some of the origins of these practices show that there were, in fact, secular aspects of certain festivals back then. Is it of no great surprise that such similar practices have crept their way back into the secular practice of holidays today? But should the celebration of Christians, gathering for the greatest of reasons, if we keep that real reason as THE reason for celebration, be prohibited? Even if the celebration be called by something now by the culture at large not initially related in any way to the REAL reason for our celebration? Blessings to you, Makarios |
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