Results 81 - 100 of 174
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions Author: Morant61 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
81 | If Jesus did it, way can't I? | John 1:1 | Morant61 | 91005 | ||
Greetings Truthfinder! Long time, no see my friend! You wrote that many Bibles have changed 'Jehovah' to 'Lord', yet that is exactly what Jesus did in Matt. 4:10 - He used the word 'Lord' instead of Jehovah. So, why is it a problem to translate Jehovah as Lord? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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82 | When is an indefinite pronoun definite? | John 3:16 | Morant61 | 89302 | ||
Greetings John! I know you would never really hate me! :-) I have heard this interpretation before, but it doesn't make any sense for two reasons. 1) First of all, if the basis for the Lord's delay in coming is that He doesn't want any of the people to whom Peter is writing to perish, then what is the basis for the Lord's delay. The one's to whom Peter is writing are already saved! 2) Secondly, the pronoun 'you' is not the only pronoun used. Peter also uses 'any' and 'all'. Now, we have discussed 'all' before, but 'any' is an indefinite pronoun. It does to refer to 'all' people with out discrimination, hence the 'indefinite' part. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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83 | Whose will causes a believer to sin? | Rev 13:8 | Morant61 | 87979 | ||
Greetings John! Concerning 'all' my friend, see my new post entitled 'My Final Answer'. Concerning sin, I actually did ask you about Herod's sin. I knew that for non-Christians you would simply respond that they had no choice but to will to sin. So, I asked you if, when you as a Christian sin, you do so because of an act of your will or because of an act of God's will? Christians are specifically commanded not to sin! Christians have a new nature. So, when you as a Christian sin, is it because you willed it or because God willed it? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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84 | Where is Luke 16:19ff called a parable? | Luke 16:23 | Morant61 | 86338 | ||
Greetings Matt! Two quick points, if I may? 1) The question isn't what you believe about Luke 16:19ff. The question is what does Scripture say my friend. This passage is never identfied as a parable. Therefore, one is only speculating if one claims that it is! :-) However, there are many places where Scripture clearly says that Jesus was using a parable. So, can anyone simply claim that any passage he doesn't agree with is a parable? 2) Luke 8:10 has no relevance to Luke 16:19ff. It would be absurd to claim on the basis of this verse that everything Jesus said to anyone who wasn't one of His disciples had to be a parable. How about Mt. 12:3-8? Jesus answered the question of the Pharisees with a straight answer, not a parable! 3) Eternal Fire: Mt. 18:8 uses the adjective 'aionios' to describe the fire. This adjective only occurs 70 times in the New Testament. Your telling me that 56 of these occurances refer to things that have already ended? Which verses please? How also do you explain Mt. 25:46? "Then they will go away to eternal punishment, but the righteous to eternal life." The same exact adjective describes both the 'life' and the 'punishment'. How can one refer to 'life' that lasts forever, but the other to a punishment that ends at some point? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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85 | Does Luke 16 use the term 'parable'? | Luke 16:23 | Morant61 | 86040 | ||
Greetings Goodnewsminister! In the example that you cite from Matt. 13, notice the pattern. Mt. 13:3 - "Then he told them many things in parables, saying: 'A farmer went out to sow his seed." Mt. 13:24 - "Jesus told them another parable: 'The kingdom of heaven is like a man who sowed good seed in his field." Mt. 13:31 - "He told them another parable: 'The kingdom of heaven is like a mustard seed, which a man took and planted in his field." Mt. 13:33 - "He told them still another parable: 'The kingdom of heaven is like yeast that a woman took and mixed into a large amount of flour until it worked all through the dough.'" Mt. 13:34 - "Jesus spoke all these things to the crowd in parables; he did not say anything to them without using a parable." There are more, but this should suffice. Each parable is identified as being a parable. Where in Luke 16 is the account of Lazarus and the Rich man called a parable? Notice also that Mt. 13:34 refers to 'these things', the things Jesus was currently speaking to the crowd. Mt. 13:34 does not provide justification for saying that everything Jesus said to a crowd at anytime was also a parable. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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86 | Why before He died? | 2 Cor 5:21 | Morant61 | 83263 | ||
Greetings Graceful! May I ask a quick question about your view of Jesus' quote? If, by saying, "My God, My God, why have you forsaken me?", Jesus was referring to spiritual death in Hell, why does Jesus say this before He died? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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87 | Literally 12,000 from each tribe? | Rev 7:4 | Morant61 | 82734 | ||
Greetings RR144! Do you also believe that the 144,000 is composed of 12,000 from each tribe of Israel? If not, why would you take the number literally, but not the listing of 12,000 from each tribe? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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88 | Are Reason and Obedience opposites? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 82088 | ||
Greetings Earnest! I think all would agree with you that obedience to God is essential and necessary. However, let me ask you this question: How do you determine what it is that God is commanding? His Word is written in language, based upon grammatical rules. Don't we have to apply 'reason' to His Word in order to properly understand it? Toward the end of one of Jesus' parables, He said: Mark 4:23-24a - "'If anyone has ears to hear, let him hear.' 24 'Consider carefully what you hear,' he continued..." I would agree that if one uses 'reason' to disobey God, that person is wrong. However, if one simply accepts whatever one is told, without carefully considering Scripture, that one is just as wrong. Reason and obedience are not opposites. Obedience and disobience are though. There is not one single Scripture which commands us not to use the minds which God has given us. In fact, in your very own quote of Is. 1:18 above, God commands us to come and reason with Him. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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89 | Why no response my friend? | Rom 6:3 | Morant61 | 80737 | ||
Greetings Sniper! My friend, I asked you a very polite and cordial question, why not respond to it? Instead of responding to the points I raised and the questions I asked, you throw out insults. :-( I guess I will have to assume that you have no answer for the points I raised! ;-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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90 | Not by works or Partly by works? | Rom 6:3 | Morant61 | 80715 | ||
Greetings Sniper! Good evening my friend! I am at a loss as to how you do not see the contradiction inherent in your interpretation of James 2:24. Eph. 2:8-9 says, "For it is by grace you have been saved, through faith - and this not from yourselves, it is the gift of God - 9 not by works, so that no one can boast." Paul does not say, 'Not just by works'. He does not say, 'Partly by works'. Yet, according to your interpretation of James 2:24, man is saved partly by works. Clearly, there is a problem here. There is a huge difference between 'not by works' and 'partly by works'! :-) I believe that the key to this problem is quite simple. You are taking James 2:24 out of context. James 2 is not dealing with how a person gets saved, but the evidence of salvation. James 2:14 speaks of those 'who claim to have faith' but let others go hungry or naked. James 2:17 speaks of real faith being accompained by action (which Paul also says in Eph. 2:10). In 2:18, James speaks of demonstrating his faith through his deeds, not just talking about it. This is the context, not salvation. I have previously posted that one of the possible meaning of the verb translated as 'justified' in James 2:24 is 'to show to be righteous'. The verb can mean 'to make righteous', but it can also mean 'to show or to declare righteous'. This meaning of the verb does not contradict Paul, and it fits the context of the passage. Faith, accompanied by action, is demonstrated to be real faith. This is what James 2:24 is saying, not that faith plus works saves. This would be a direct contradiction of Eph. 2:8-9, Gal. 2, and Rom. 4. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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91 | Is 'Pneuma' really feminine? | Jer 7:18 | Morant61 | 80582 | ||
Greetings gbenett76! You wrote: "Many theologians and scholars realize that the Holy Spirit written as, "Pneuma" in Greek everytime it appears in the New Testament, is a feminine being. Note that Pneuma is a feminine word in Greek." Where are you getting this information? 'Pneuma' in Greek is a neuter noun. It is not feminine! The only good thing about this misinformation is that it makes it clear how reliable the rest of your post is. Is 43:10, among many others, makes it clear that there is only one God. There are not any other gods or godesses. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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92 | Did Jesus Drink Wine? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 80385 | ||
Greetings Truthfinder! One last question my friend! You wrote: "Self-righteous religious leaders in Jesus? day criticized him for occasionally drinking wine." Where exactly does the New Testament say that Jesus drank 'wine'? There is only one verse which I could find, and it says that once He tasted it, He refused it. Mt. 27:34 - "There they offered Jesus wine to drink, mixed with gall; but after tasting it, he refused to drink it." It is true that the pharisees called Him a drunkard, but they also said that He cast out demons by the power of Satan. :-) Their accusation does not make Jesus a drunkard. Even concerning communion, Scripture never specifically says that 'wine' was used. We tend to make a lot of cultural assumptions about these points, but do not look at what Scripture actually says. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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93 | Originals? | Rev 22:18 | Morant61 | 79245 | ||
Greetings Truthfinder! Do you have one of these 'originals' which includes God's name? If not, the whole argument is pure speculation. Concerning the Jews, read what Paul said: Rom. 11:1 - "I ask then: Did God reject his people? By no means! I am an Israelite myself, a descendant of Abraham, from the tribe of Benjamin. 2 God did not reject his people, whom he foreknew...." What Scripture can you point to which says that the Jewish nation is no longer God's people? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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94 | Cornelius - Saved in Acts 10:45 or not? | NT general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 78058 | ||
Greetings Disciplerami! I asked before my friend, how could Cornelius be unsaved at Acts 10:45? According to your understanding of Acts 2:38, both repentance and baptism must be obyed in order to receive the 'Gift of the Holy Spirit'. Yet, Acts 10:45 says that they had received the 'Gift of the Holy Spirit' prior to being baptized. The 'gift of the Holy Spirit' cannot be received by an unbeliever. By the way, how does Acts 11:14 demonstrate that they were not saved at Acts 10:45. Speaking about what happened in the past, Cornelius was told that Peter would bring him and his family the message of salvation. Yet, Acts 11:15 totally agrees with the account in Acts 10. When they heard the message of Peter, they repented and received the 'Gift of the Holy Spirit' just as Acts 2:38 promised. Finally my friend, it is okay to disagree with individuals, but your last line seems over the top and unloving. Each of us must be an example to everyone else on the forum and make sure that our conversations are seasoned with grace. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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95 | Misquote? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 77274 | ||
Greetings Dan! You wrote: "...and I have nothing against Morant61, but Tim eventually makes the case that both repentance AND baptism only follow salvation AND THEREFORE HAVE EQUAL FORCE." To what are you referring my friend? I'm not I understand what you are trying to say, but I know that I never said it! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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96 | Which reading? | John 1:18 | Morant61 | 77098 | ||
Greetings Truthfinder! I can't tell from your post which reading you think is original! The evidence seems to be better for the reading 'monogenes theos'. This is the reading supported by the papyrus manuscripts which tend to be the oldest manuscripts. While, the reading 'monogenes uios' is heavily supported by the uncials. So, I guess to continue this discussion, I would ask which reading you believe is original? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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97 | Almighty and Mighty God | Is 9:6 | Morant61 | 77096 | ||
Greetings Truthfinder! First of all, since Scripture tells us that there is only one God, then there cannot be an 'Almighty God' and a 'Mighty God'. Secondly, where is there any support in the Old Testament for 'Almighty God' being a higher level of God than a 'Mighty God'? Jehovah is described as a 'Mighty God'. He is also described as 'Almighty God'. He is also described with a lot of other adjectives as well. However, there isn't any evidence in the Old Testament that the two terms indicate different degrees. In fact, the two terms are not even used together. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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98 | Is it Sin or Me? | Rom 5:12 | Morant61 | 75624 | ||
Greetings Discplerami! If there is not such thing as a sin nature, then what was Paul referring to in Rom. 7:18-20? "For I know that nothing good dwells in me, that is, in my flesh; for the wishing is present in me, but the doing of the good is not. 19 For the good that I wish, I do not do; but I practice the very evil that I do not wish. 20 But if I am doing the very thing I do not wish, I am no longer the one doing it, but sin which dwells in me." If sin is only something you do as a result of your free will, then how come Paul was doing that which he did not want to do? How come he talks of 'sin dwelling in him'? Paul's point throughout Romans is very clear, that apart from Christ we are slaves to sin. Sin is a violation of God's law, but it is also an inherited, corrupted nature, which cannot do right unless defeated by the power of Christ. Are we to read Rom. 7 as saying: "I do what I don't want to do but I really did want to do it!"? Romans 7 makes no sense apart from human depravity. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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99 | Can Jesus be 'a god', when God said...? | Is 43:10 | Morant61 | 75547 | ||
Greetings All! I asked this question of a JW a few days ago, but I have not received a reply. So, I am going to post it to all because I am curious as to how those who believe that John 1:1 teaches that Jesus was 'a god' reconcile their belief with God's words in Is. 43:10. So, if you believe in the JW doctrine that Jesus was 'a god', how do you reconcile this belief with God's words in Is. 43:10 there there was no god formed before or after Him? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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100 | What is Psalm 51:5 saying then? | Rom 5:12 | Morant61 | 75544 | ||
Greetings Disciplerami! Thanks for your response my friend! I do have a question for you though. If Psalm 51:5 is not saying that David was born a sinner, then what do you see it as saying? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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