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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions Author: Morant61 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Fallen will? | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 209557 | ||
Greetings Doc! You wrote: "The Lord's eternal purpose isn't to enthrone the fallen human will. The sovereignty of the human self determinism is a shaky foundation, theologically, philosophically, practically, and biblically. God won't share His glory." Where in any of my posts have I said that God was enthroning the fallen human will? Paul makes it quite clear why and how we are able to live holy lives. Consider the following: Rom. 6:1-5 tells us that holiness is grounded in the death and resurrection of Christ. Rom. 6:6 tells us that our 'old man' was crucified with Christ. Rom. 6:13 tells us that we have been 'brought' from death to life (passive voice). Rom. 6:18 tells us that we have been set free from sin (Aorist, passive, participle - past action done for us). Rom. 6:22 tells us that we receive the 'benefit' of holiness from Christ setting us free from sin. Rom. 8:2 tells us that we are set free from the Law of sin and death 'through Christ Jesus.' Rom. 8:4 tells us that the 'righteous requirements of the law are fully met in us' because of God's actions in sending Christ. Rom. 8:9 tells us that we are able to live holy lives because 'we are controlled by the Spirit'. Rom. 8:13 tells us that the misdeeds of the body are put to death through the Spirit. Where is any of this based upon the supposed enthroning of the fallen human will? Where is any of this an effort to wrest glory from God? Please respond with examples and Scripture! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | What is the Gospel? | Mark | Morant61 | 204446 | ||
Greetings Looking! What does the Bible say the Gospel is? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | Clarification? | Rom 6:3 | Morant61 | 204067 | ||
Greetings Looking! First of all, welcome to the forum! Secondly, could you clarify something for me? Are you saying that one must be baptized in water in order to be saved? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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4 | Was God sinning? | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 197184 | ||
Greetings Julie! So, was God sinning when He commanded the Israelites to go to war against other nations? Were the Israelites sinning when they obeyed Him? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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5 | Evidence for Aramaic? | Prov 5:1 | Morant61 | 178777 | ||
Greetings Edwin! Do you have any evidence that all of the NT, with the possible exceptions of Luke and Acts were written in Aramaic? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6 | Experience or Scripture? | Rom 7:19 | Morant61 | 169384 | ||
Greetings Doc! So, are we to base our doctrine upon our experience or upon God's Word? Secondly, I can state with absolute assurance that Rom. 7:14-25 does not describe my walk in Christ. The man described there ALWAYS does what he does not want to do. While there are certainly occasions upon which I fail Christ, I do not fail Him continuously. The man described there NEVER does what He wants. While there are certainly occasions upon which I have failed to do something that I wanted to do, I usually do what I want. :-) This is part of my problem with this approach to Rom. 7:14-25. First, I would never base my interpretation upon my experience. If Christ says I am no longer a slave to sin, then I am no longer a slave to sin. Secondly, the description given has been watered down to mean 'I usually don't do what I want'. But, that is not what the text actually says. Well, I have to get to bed. I have to get up in an hour and half and head to work. :-( Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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7 | Biblical or Not? | John 7:17 | Morant61 | 167414 | ||
Greetings Mitch! Did we read the same quote? Copeland did not say that we might suffer physically or mentally but we had to overcome it. He said that there is no physical or mental suffering for a believer! The Scriptures I cited demonstrate that there is physical suffering for believers. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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8 | Biblical or Not? | John 7:17 | Morant61 | 167410 | ||
Greetings Mitch! Yes, I read the rest of the article my friend! However, Mr. Copeland's statement is not Biblical. Here is what the Bible actually says about suffering. Paul calls Timothy to join with him in suffering for the gospel in 2 Tim. 1:8. Was this suffering physical or mental? According to 2 Tim. 2:9, his suffering included being chained like a criminal. 1 Peter 2:20 describes suffering as taking a physical beating unjustly. John suffered because of the word of God and the testimony of Jesus on the Island of Patmos (Rev. 1:9). History tells us that he was impriosoned there. Jesus says this to the Church at Symrna in Rev. 2:10: "Do not be afraid of what you are about to suffer. I tell you, the devil will put some of you in prison to test you, and you will suffer persecution for ten days. Be faithful, even to the point of death, and I will give you the crown of life." In light of these passages, would you still say that the following statement is Biblical: "In other words, the only suffering for a believer is the spiritual discomfort brought by resisting the pressures of the flesh, not a physical or mental suffering." Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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9 | Biblical or Not? | John 7:17 | Morant61 | 167407 | ||
Greetings Mitch! The clip is from a sermon entitled 'What Satan Saw on the Day of Pentecost", tape # 020022. If you have it or would care to purchase it, we could discuss the quote. :-) But, since you limit me to discussing quotes from his web site, here is one: " Here's some good news: When the Word says we are to be partakers of Christ's suffering, it means we are to enter into the victory Jesus bore for us on the cross. The only suffering we encounter in sharing His victory is spiritual. That's what the Word is talking about when it says we are to be partakers of Christ's suffering. In other words, the only suffering for a believer is the spiritual discomfort brought by resisting the pressures of the flesh, not a physical or mental suffering. Jesus has already borne for us all the suffering in the natural and mental realms." Source: http://www.kcm.org/studycenter/articles/faith_hope/suffering_with_christ.php Is this Biblical? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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10 | Biblical or Not? | John 7:17 | Morant61 | 167403 | ||
Greetings Mitch! I just went to the web site that you mentioned. On it, I found an audio clip from one of Kenneth Copeland's sermons, where he makes the following claim: "It was not the physical death of Christ on the cross that paid the price for sin." Is this Biblical or is it heresy? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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11 | Choose according to preference? | 2 Tim 1:12 | Morant61 | 165824 | ||
Greetings Doc! How does Rom. 7:14-25 relate to the theory that one always chooses according to the option that one most prefers? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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12 | Scriptural Support? | Rev 12:9 | Morant61 | 159662 | ||
Greetings BibleAnswer! You wrote: "Notice after the war with Michael (Jesus angelic name)..." Where exactly does the Bible say that Jesus is an angel or that His name is Michael? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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13 | What are wages? | Rom 10:9 | Morant61 | 155570 | ||
Greetings Obi 1! Again, you need to read the verses that people respond with to you. Brad wrote: "What do you say of 1 Tim. 5:17-18?: "The elders who rule well are to be considered worthy of double honor, especially those who work hard at preaching and teaching. For the Scripture says, "YOU SHALL NOT MUZZLE THE OX WHILE HE IS THRESHING," and "The laborer is worthy of his wages." " Note that the last verses mentions 'wages'. What exactly are wages? ;-) Are they not payment for services rendered? The wages could be money, they could be food, they could be board, but they are still wages (payment). Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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14 | Filled with Holy Spirit? | Eph 4:23 | Morant61 | 150064 | ||
Greetings Ray! If you acknowledge that the Holy Spirit dwells within us according to Rom. 8:11, why would you reject that we can be 'filled' with the Holy Spirit? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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15 | Scripture reference? | Rom 6:14 | Morant61 | 147256 | ||
Greetings Merv! You wrote: " Yes, but righteous is given based on forgiveness, repentance, faith in God and finally proof of faith which is obedeience." Where exactly does Scripture say that 'righteousness' is given based upon 'proof of faith'? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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16 | In what way is it clear? | Bible general Archive 2 | Morant61 | 146003 | ||
Greetings Merv! First of all, welcome to the forum! Secondly, in what way is it clear that the 'he' of Dan. 9:27 refers to Christ? Do you believe that Christ is also the one who will set up the abomination mentioned in 9:27? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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17 | Angel? | Mark 15:42 | Morant61 | 146002 | ||
Greetings Childoflight777! First of all, welcome to the forum! Secondly, I haven't had a chance to read all of your posts as of yet. Who is this 'angel' that you keep mentioning? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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18 | But what did Jehovah say? | John 8:58 | Morant61 | 145492 | ||
Greetings Ben! To a certain degree, every translation is an interpretation! :-) You accuse me of relying upon an interpretation, not a translation, yet you want to 'add' a distinction that does not exist in Hebrew or Greek. There is no distinction between 'God' and 'god' in either language. So, Jehovah does not say in Is. 43:10 that there is no other 'God' formed but Him. He says that there is no other 'elohim' but Him. So, the question still stands my friend! Was Jehovah wrong? If you really want to be a witness for Jehovah, then it is essential that you proclaim what He actually said my friend. He explicilty said that there are no other 'elohim'. Therefore, Jesus cannot be a 'god' other than Jehovah. He must be Jehovah. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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19 | Is Jehovah lying? | John 8:58 | Morant61 | 145448 | ||
Greetings Ben! Thanks for the response my friend! I assume that you would agree that the following two statements cannot both be true in the same way: 1) There are no other gods. 2) There are other gods. So, how would you reconcile the statements of Jehovah and the statement of Paul. Simple - Jehovah is speaking of actual gods, while Paul is speaking of things that are only 'called' gods. There is a major difference. I could take a hunk of wood, and carve an idol out of it and call it my god. However, it would not really be a god, would it? It would still just be a hunk of wood. Notice that Paul's comments are in full agreement with this point. He says (in your version) that there are "those who are called 'gods'", but that doesn't make them gods in fact. In fact, didn't you read the very first part of Paul's statement? "There is no God but one"! Is. 37:19 also makes this point: "They have thrown their gods into the fire and destroyed them, for they were not gods but only wood and stone, fashioned by human hands." Both times that the word 'gods' appears in this verse it is the Hebrew word 'elohim'. Notice that the first occurance speaks of their 'gods', but the second occurance denies that there were actually 'gods'. Ex. 4:16 is an easy verse to explain. "He will speak to the people for you, and it will be as if he were your mouth and as if you were God to him." Jehovah is simply making an analogy. Moses would speak to Aaron in the same way that God speaks to Moses. Notice the words 'as if'. Jehovah is not saying that Moses IS A GOD! :-) Exodus 7:1 is the same sort of statement: "Then the LORD said to Moses, 'See, I have made you like God to Pharaoh, and your brother Aaron will be your prophet.'" However, Is. 43:10 is an example of an unqualified direct statement by Jehovah: "'You are my witnesses,' declares the LORD, 'and my servant whom I have chosen, so that you may know and believe me and understand that I am he. Before me no god was formed, nor will there be one after me.'" So, how do you reconcile this statement of Jehovah with the teachings of the JW's? How can Jesus be 'a god', if Jehovah Himself says that there is no other gods - either before or after Him? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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20 | 'I AM' or 'I exist'? | John 8:58 | Morant61 | 145124 | ||
Greetings All! Is there evidence that 'ego eimi' in John 8:58 can be used to mean more than 'I exist'? There certainly is such evidence. Consider some of the following passages. 1) John 8:24 - "I told you that you would die in your sins; if you do not believe that I am the one I claim to be, you will indeed die in your sins." (NIV) This is one of the places where I do not like the NIV's translation. The Greek here literally reads, "...if you do not believe that I am". What exactly is so important here that one could die in his sins for not believing? Must one believe that Jesus exists? The people to whom Jesus was speaking clearly knew that He existed? ;-) Jesus is clearly speaking of 'identity', not existence in this verse. As we will see later, 'I am' has been used by God in the same way. 2) John 8:28 - "So Jesus said, 'When you have lifted up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am the one I claim to be and that I do nothing on my own but speak just what the Father has taught me.'" Here we have the same sort of construction as in John 8:24 and John 8:58. Again, the Greek simply says 'I am'. Would the Jews only believe that Jesus existed after they killed Him? Or, was Jesus speaking of more than just existence? 3) John 13:19 - "I am telling you now before it happens, so that when it does happen you will believe that I am He." Again, what does it mean to believe that 'I am'? It must mean more than that He simply exists! The answer is found when we discover that God used this same phrase in exactly the same manner. 4) Is. 43:10-11 says, "'You are my witnesses,' declares the LORD, 'and my servant whom I have chosen, so that you may know and believe me and understand that I am he. Before me no god was formed, nor will there be one after me. 11 I, even I, am the LORD, and apart from me there is no savior.'" Notice what God says about Himself in the middle of v. 10, "...so that you may know and believe me and understand that I am he". Guess how the LXX translates this OT verse? They translate it, "that you may know and believe...that 'EGO EIMI'" Clearly, 'ego eimi' is used many times in the New Testament as simply 'i am', without any particular theological significance. However, just as clearly 'ego eimi' is used a number of times with great theological significance. Unless one believes that Jesus 'ego eimi', one will die in his sins. Jesus (John 8:24). Some would not believe that Jesus 'ego eimi' until He died (John 8:28). Jesus told His disciples things in advance so that they might believe that He 'ego eimi' when they take place. The Jews tried to kill Jesus for saying that He 'ego eimi'. Why? The answer is found in Is. 43:10! The Jews clearly understood that Jesus was using 'ego eimi' with very clear theological meaning. He was claiming to be God. Look at John 10:31-33: "Again the Jews picked up stones to stone him, 32 but Jesus said to them, 'I have shown you many great miracles from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?' 33 'We are not stoning you for any of these,' replied the Jews, 'but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God.'" The message is clear my friends! Unless we accept Christ as God, we cannot be saved! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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