Results 21 - 40 of 174
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions Author: Morant61 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | Is BeDuhn correct on John 8:58? | John 8:58 | Morant61 | 145123 | ||
Sorry! I meant to post the following as a question.................................. Greetings Ben! The following is supposed to be a quote from DeDuhn's book. I have no way of verifying it at the moment, so please let me know if the quote is in error. ********************************************* One passage usually missing from the discussion of the expression “I am” in the Gospel according to John is John 9:9. I n this verse, the words egw eimi are heard from the mouth not of Jesus, but of a blind man cured by Jesus. He, too, uses the words to say “I am he,” the man who before was blind, but have been cured. If anyone needs proof that egw eimi need not be a quote from the Old Testament, and is not reserved as a title of God, here it is. Once again, our attention is drawn to inconsistency i n how words are handled by biased translators. If egw eimi is not a divine self-proclamation in the mouth of the blind man of John 9, then it cannot be such a proclamation in the mouth of Jesus just a few verses earlier. ****************************************** There are a couple of logical errors that I see in this short quote. 1) No one claims that 'ego eimi' is always used as a title for God. 'eimi' is simply the present, active, indicative, 1st person, singular verb of being, while 'ego' is simply the first person pronoun. The phrase 'ego eimi' is found 48 times in the Nestle Aland Greek text. It is often used in questions concerning identity, as in the English 'I am he'. It is often used as the subject of predicate nominative statements. "I am the Christ", ect.... So, no one disputes that 'ego eimi' has uses other than as a title for God. 2) The author says that if it is not a divine self-proclamation by the blind man then it CANNOT be a divine self-proclamation by Christ. Why can't it? Where is the rule? :-) Words and phrases can have different meanings in different contexts. 3) The context of John 8 clearly shows that Jesus is using the phrase differently than the blind man. a) First of all, Jesus was not responding to a question of identity. No one had just asked Him, 'Are you the Savior?' So, 'I am he' does not fit the context. b) Secondly, the phrase 'ego eimi' stands alone without any predicate nominatives. In fact, there aren't any helping words at all. c) Thirdly, no matter how one views the use of 'ego eimi' as a title for God, Jesus is clearly saying that he existed at the time of Abraham. So, 'I have been' would be a horrible translation. d) Finally, the reaction of the crowd makes it perfectly clear that they understood Jesus' statement to mean more than 'I am he' or 'I have been'. They wanted to kill Him. It would certainly be unusual to kill someone for simply saying that they exist. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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22 | In what ways? | NT general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 142666 | ||
Greetings Angel3! In what ways to 'we' "start with oursleves and work 'up' to God"? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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23 | Scriptural support? | Bible general Archive 2 | Morant61 | 140731 | ||
Greetings AO! First of all, which of the Scriptures that you cited mention anything other than idols? Secondly, Mt. 23:5 has to do with things done for the wrong reasons, not with jewlery. Using this line of arguement, one would have to argue that it is wrong to sit at a table! :-) So, where does Scripture say that someone cannot wear any kind of jewlery? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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24 | Clarification? | 1 Cor 13:8 | Morant61 | 140373 | ||
Greetings Jcsav! Can you clarify what you mean by 'wrong'? If you are referring to baptismal regeneration, I have posted on this point many times before. I would recommend the following post: # 8755 This posts offers an explanation as to why water baptism is not necessary for salvation. If I have misunderstood you, please let me know! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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25 | Scriptural Support? | Bible general Archive 2 | Morant61 | 139777 | ||
Greetings Eric! Where exactly does Scripture make this statement? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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26 | Are you a Momon? | Bible general Archive 2 | Morant61 | 139772 | ||
Greetings Eric! Would you by any chance be a member of the cult known as Mormons? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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27 | What does Rev. 2:28 indicate to you? | Bible general Archive 2 | Morant61 | 138730 | ||
Greetings He-man! And what do you make of this? In Is. 14:12, the phrase 'morning star' refers to the glory of an earthly king. In Rev. 22:16, the phrase clearly refers to Christ. In Rev. 2:28 and 2 Pet. 1:19, it may refer to Christ. However, the fact that a similar phrase is used of Christ in the New Testament does not mean that Is. 14:12 refers to Christ! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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28 | Please tell me you are not! :-) | Bible general Archive 2 | Morant61 | 138682 | ||
Greetings He-man! Please tell me that you are not buying into that common cult practice of trying to connect Lucifer with 'the morning star' in the New Testament! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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29 | Evidence? | Bible general Archive 2 | Morant61 | 138112 | ||
Greetings Shankara! You wrote: "You have to be careful about rendering the word "evil" from ancient Hebrew to English, particularly as it is read from Isaiah 45:7. This is where a great deal of confusion among Protestants and Catholics gets turned around. The word here means not "evil" as we understand it, but more in the meaning of the word "confusion"" What is your evidence for this statement? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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30 | Sources? | Matt 5:17 | Morant61 | 137697 | ||
Greetings MJH! What are your sources for this idiom? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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31 | Scriptural Support for you position? | 1 Cor 8:5 | Morant61 | 134814 | ||
Greetings Pcdarcan! The last line of the quote in your post reads: "The Bible itself refers to Satan as 'the god of this world . . .' (2 Cor. 4:4; 1 Jo. 5:1).'" Here is the text of both of these verses: 2 Cor. 4:4 - "The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God." 1 John 5:1 - "Everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God, and everyone who loves the father loves his child as well." Where does the word 'Satan' appear in either of these verses? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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32 | Isn't 24 more than one? | Acts 2:38 | Morant61 | 133450 | ||
Greetings Rowdy! You asked for one, I gave you 24! Which of these verses listed any requirement other than faith? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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33 | Scriptural evidence? | Bible general Archive 2 | Morant61 | 131843 | ||
Greetings Doc! You wrote: "Ed, the truth of a doctrine cannot be verified by the number of people who adhere to it. Just as the truth of a doctrine cannot be falsified by the number of people who abuse it. We need to carefully search the scriptures, and test the fruit of the adherents, as we are commanded." Yet, the arguement of this entire thread seems to be that very few have practiced it over the years; therefore, tongues must have passed away. :-) There is only one verse in the entire Bible that mentions the gift of tongues ceasing. That same verse also mentions prophesy and knowledge ceasing as well. The timing of this 'ceasing' is absolutely vague, to say the least. So, let's lay aside the historical arguement (which really carries no authority anyway), and address what Scripture actually says. What is your Scriptural case that tongues are no longer valid? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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34 | Still waiting.... | 1 Cor 8:5 | Morant61 | 130609 | ||
Greetings Tara! Who did Jehovah call 'gods' in Deut. 10:17? Answer: no one! He uses a phrase God of gods and Lord of lords to describe His uniqueness. The verse does not say that there are other gods at all. However, in Isaiah, Jehovah several times denies that there are any other gods but Him. I have asked you several times, but you have refused to answer: Was Jehovah wrong? Did He lie? The JW's are false witnesses teaching the very thing that Jehovah denied - that there are other gods. Be honest with the text my friend! Jehovah is quite clear in His statement and does not qualify it in any way! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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35 | More than one god? | 1 Cor 8:5 | Morant61 | 130296 | ||
Greetings Tara! Brad asked you a very good question. Do you believe that there is more than one god? If so, that is polytheism! And, it would be in direct contradiction to the words of Jehovah in Isaiah, where He says time and time again that there is 'no other god besides Him'. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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36 | More than one god? | 1 Cor 8:5 | Morant61 | 130295 | ||
Greetings Tara! Brad asked you a very good question. Do you believe that there is more than one god? If so, that is polytheism! And, it would be in direct contradiction to the words of Jehovah in Isaiah, where He says time and time again that there is 'no other god besides Him'. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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37 | Source? | Bible general Archive 2 | Morant61 | 129698 | ||
Greetings Jlpwilley! Jesus (in Greek) is simply the Greek form of the Hebrew name Joshua. Where did you get that Jesus means 'Hail Zeus'? Jesus means 'Yahweh saves'. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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38 | Scripture or opinion? | Bible general Archive 2 | Morant61 | 128807 | ||
Greetings Chesed! So, are you saying that Scripture was wrong when it applies Zech. 9 to Jesus? Was Jesus mistaken when He sent them to get a donkey and a foal? Rather than Matthew or Jesus reading IT ideas into the OT, you seem to be reading your ideas into the NT. :-( Using this approach to interpretation, you can make the Bible say anything you want, regardless of what it actually says. My approach is quite simple. If the NT says that something fulfilled an OT prophecy, than it did! Even if we didn't understand the prophecy in that way, I'll go with God's word on it. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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39 | Evidence? | John 5:19 | Morant61 | 127921 | ||
Greetings Fatherof4! You wrote: "Finally, you have been deceived by Bible translations which have used translated the original as “earth” or "world" when it should have been translated as “land”. All the “nations of the land” did actually mourn when God used the Roman armies to come upon them in judgment in AD 70." What evidence do you have that 'earth' is a mistranslation? I have studied Greek for years now, and every source I consulted lists 'earth' as one of the possible meanings of the word. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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40 | Scriptural Support? | Is 7:16 | Morant61 | 127620 | ||
Greetings DBR! You wrote: "This seems to speak of and earthly judgment to me and as the scriptures clearly state the unrighteous will be brought back they cannot go into heaven as they are unrighteous so in would appear that the only place left would be this earth and as ignorance can be a defence with the Loving God of the Bible then it would seem that further opportunities must be available other why not leave the unrighteous dead dead, why else bring them back, it seem logical to me." Where does the Bible say that the unrighteous will be 'brought back'? Where does the Bible say that 'ignorance can be a defence'? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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