Results 61 - 80 of 174
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: following him Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
61 | Were woman bought and sold? | Ruth 4:5 | following him | 131114 | ||
Hello Reighnskye; I would like to make a few comments about this book (Ruth) that may interest you in your studying of it. Although women had a lower status than men, and they were probably bought and sold like property, I don’t believe that this is the issue or the implication of this book. Boaz was not buying Ruth. He was redeeming her. There is a difference. She was not to become his slave but his bride. Although this is a historical book, it is in my opinion a very prophetic one as well. In Hosea 12:10 it mentions different ways in which God gave messages (prophecies) to the people. Hosea 12:10 “I have also spoken by the prophets, and I have multiplied visions, and used similitudes, by the ministry of the prophets.” The word similitudes means: to be like, to resemble, to liken etc. This is where we get the idea of “prefigurations” or “foreshadowings” such as we see in Gen. 22 where Abraham sacrifices his son Issac. This was a prefiguration or similitude of God the Father sacrificing His only Son Jesus. The roles played here may correspond like this: Naomi is Israel Ruth is the church Boaz is Jesus The near kinsman is the old covenant or John the Baptist Please reread the book of Ruth with these roles in view, then let me know what you think. Iwould be interested in getting your opinion on this. Boaz plays the part of the kinsman redeemer as Jesus is our redeemer. This is also significant in the book of Revelation because there is a section there that could be difficult to understand if you are unfamiliar with the concept of the kinsman redeemer. Blessing to you Aaron |
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62 | Naming our Daughter question | 2 Chr 3:1 | following him | 131989 | ||
Hello wshiner; Elizabeth is an old biblical name but has many current derivatives that are nice. It means dedicated to God. Blessing to you Aaron |
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63 | Pragmatism is of the World | Job 21:15 | following him | 129573 | ||
Hello DocTrinsograce; Heb 11:6 And without faith it is impossible to please Him, for he who comes to God must believe that He is and that He is a rewarder of those who seek Him. From this verse I would say the God requires us to believe that He will reward us for seeking Him. Please dont take me wrong in what I am going to say. I'm not saying that you don't believe this because from what you write it seems you include all this in the term salvation. But I usually divide salvation like this; God did not give us salvation just so that we could be saved. He saved us for something; a relationship with Him. In my view salvation is just the first step. It refers to delivering us from the bondage of sin and the jugdement that comes with it. Being freed from all that we now have access to have and grow in a living, dynamic, powerful relationship with the living God and Creator of the universe and to be who He created us to be. I am thankful for salvation (getting to heaven you might say) but I want more I want to know my God personally. This is what I would consider those rewards are refering to. Blessing to you Aaron |
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64 | Pragmatism is of the World | Job 21:15 | following him | 129740 | ||
Hello Karen; I would like to say something about this "King"/"king" issue. Jesus was placed before Pilot on trial in which the Jews wanted Jesus to receive the death penalty. Their case however was going very badly because Pilot could find no reason for His trial let alone His execution. Remember the reason Jesus came in the first place was to die on the cross for the sins of man. And at this point Pilot was trying to keep Him from that cross. And the Jews could give no reason for Jesus to be put to death. So Jesus provides Pilot with a reason. He does not claim to be THE King. He claims to be a king. The king of the Jews (an earthly king) and as such set Himself up to be a threat to Rome. Even with this Pilot tried to get Him off until the Jews threatened him by saying that if Pilot let Him go Pilot was no friend of cesear. Pilot realy had no choice but to condemn Jesus if Jesus was realy a king. Jesus it seems had to force Pilot to send Him to the cross to die for the sins of man. Just something to think about. Blessing to you Aaron |
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65 | Pragmatism is of the World | Job 21:15 | following him | 130008 | ||
Hello Karen; Forgive me for taking so long in getting back to you about the king issue concerning Jesus. You are very correct in that God cannot lie. Jesus was in fact the king of the Jews. The Jews were waiting for their Messiah to come for a long time thinking that at His coming He would rule from the throne of David as their king defeating their evil oppressors. This was all according to interpretation of OT prophesies. However, the prophecies referring to the messiah reigning as their king were not referring to His first coming but His second. His first coming was to redeem man from sin by His death on the cross. This is why the Jews missed it. They were looking for Him to do something that was not going to happen at that time. Was He still the king of the Jews? Yes. In Matt 1, the genealogy shows His ancestry as going back directly to David. He was David’s heir and as such had a right to sit on David’s throne and rule Israel. He was in fact the real king of the Jews but it was not His purpose to Rule at that time. You can see throughout the gospels He deliberately avoids being set up as king. And the only time He admits to being the king of the Jews is during His trials; once before the high priest who used His testimony as being the Messiah for a charge of blasphemy against Him when the testimony of the false witnesses were falling apart, and second before Pilot who would be obligated by Rome to eliminate the threat of a king that could possible cause the Jewish people to revolt against Roman authority. I hope I answered your question if not let me know. Blessing to you Aaron |
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66 | Do the stars really PROCLAIM His work? | Ps 19:1 | following him | 145040 | ||
One of the purposes God created the stars for was "for signs". Gen 1:14 Then God said, "Let there be lights in the expanse of the heavens to separate the day from the night, and let them be for signs and for seasons and for days and years; Gen 1:15 and let them be for lights in the expanse of the heavens to give light on the earth"; and it was so. There are two books that I know of (read only one of them though) that may interest you. "Testamony of the stars" and "Witness of the stars". I dont have them in front of me right so I cant tell you who the authors are. Blessing to you Aaron |
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67 | Out of curiosity? | Is 14:16 | following him | 126964 | ||
Please excuss me. I must say that I agree with Stultis the Fool. I can find a "published" commentary to support any number of different sides of an issue. Gap Theory, day age theory, young earth theory. Pre-trib, mid-trib, post-trib etc. They all can't be right if they are saying the opposite of each other. Most commentaries I've read are slanted toward a particular denomination or church organization's beliefs. So how can you say that their "opinions" are worth more than someone else who has not been published. Each side of the issue always thinks they are the right one and have scriptural proof (at least in their view) to back them up. As far as I'm concerned a commentary is simply someone's elses opinion it may be in writen form (and it should be considered) but its still an opinion. | ||||||
68 | The Real stature of Satan | Is 14:16 | following him | 126965 | ||
I cannot agree with the interpretation that this verse is refering to Jesus Christ. In this case it is clear that the followings verses in this chapter should be taken along with verse 12 because there is no break indicating that the focus of the verse has changed from the "Star of the morning". So verses 13-17 should be considered when trying to pinpoint who the "Star of the morning" is refering to in this case. And all of this is showing a negative view of the person being discussed. Was the Messiah ever discussed in the scriptures in anything other than a positve light? Is 14:13 "But you said in your heart, 'I will ascend to heaven; I will raise my throne above the stars of God, And I will sit on the mount of assembly In the recesses of the north. Is 14:14 'I will ascend above the heights of the clouds;I will make myself like the Most High.' Is 14:15 "Nevertheless you will be thrust down to Sheol,To the recesses of the pit. Is 14:16 "Those who see you will gaze at you, They will ponder over you, saying, 'Is this the man who made the earth tremble, Who shook kingdoms, Is 14:17 Who made the world like a wilderness And overthrew its cities, Who did not allow his prisoners to go home?' Although up until now I have always considered these scriptures to be refering to Satan but after viewing the discussion in another thread about this verse, I may have to revised my opinion. I will, when I get more time, have to look deeper into this matter. Blessings to you |
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69 | The Real stature of Satan | Is 14:16 | following him | 127035 | ||
I agree there are examples where no break is apearent when a writer may include messianic prophecies. However in this particular case I believe that the entire section of scripture I mentioned should be used to determine who is being spoken about. Even if you take verse 12 alone there is still a negative implication derived from the entire prophecy toward the king of Babylon that you cannot seperate from verse 12. So this would put the Messiah in a negative light if it truely refered to Him. As far as why this thread was restricted? I dont know. | ||||||
70 | These things say He who is holy | Is 22:22 | following him | 133764 | ||
Good morning Ray: I would go with the NASB. But this is only because I like it better. To me the passages are saying the same thing and refereing to to same One. The only difference is the repetition of the word He and the placement of "These things says(KJV)/says this(NASB). In my opinion this difference in of little importance. It is important though as to who Is the one speaking and in both cases I believe it to be correctly capitalized. Blessing to you Aaron |
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71 | These things say He who is holy | Is 22:22 | following him | 134321 | ||
Hello Ray; Forgive me for taking so long in getting back to you. "The problem that I am presenting is whether the repetition of "(h)He who is true, "(h)He who has the key of David", "(h)He who opens and no one shuts, and shuts and no one opens" are to be included." In this case (refering to the NASB) I dont believe it matters since "He" is at the beginning of the list and all those attributes listed relate back to the first He. "My question is related to the idea of whether we can think of Jesus as just a man like David or Eliakim or not. How important is it to think of Him as a Man and to give Him glory in capitalization?" It is essential that we think of Him as a man. If it wasn't important for God to become man why did He do it. But neither are we to think lightly of His Diety. I can see it is rather a fine line of distinction. We must see Christ both as a man and as God yet the two are somehow inseperable. I can give you scriptural reasons to think of Him as man and I can give you scriptural reasons to think of Him as God. How to divide the two concepts I dont know if it can be done or if it should. I am aware that my answers to you are nothing new to you so they probably didn't help except to muddy it a bit. Sorry :-) Blessing to you Aaron |
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72 | Advise needed | Ezek 18:27 | following him | 122294 | ||
I'm not sure of what you are asking about Matt 23:37. As for Ezek 18 this chapter is explaining God's graciousness. that he give oppertunity for repentance and walking in righteousness. But you must remember this was prior to Christ's death and resurrection. But even still in the OT Righteousness was based on faith in God. Following His precepts was evidence of that faith (read James). Not walking in His precepts was proof of your rejection of God and His righteousness. God says several times here that He does not get pleasure from the death of sinners. Read about King Manasseh (2 Kings 21 and 2 Chron 33)and see God's restoration for those who repent. As to whether they would be saved on Judgement day that would depend on their response to Jesus. John 14:6 Jesus *said to him, "I am the way, and the truth, and the life; no one comes to the Father but through Me. As for ghosts; they are demons. | ||||||
73 | when, where and why did lucifer fall | Ezek 28:12 | following him | 121784 | ||
Check out Ezek 28:12-19 and Isaiah 14:12-21 | ||||||
74 | origin of the devil | Ezek 28:13 | following him | 184321 | ||
Hello jonp: It has been a while since I’ve had the chance to participate on this forum. But I have been able to at times take a quick look into a few of the discussions going on and have decided that I would like to weigh in on this one “briefly” if no one objects. I think you are forgetting some scriptural references here that should shed some light on this subject. Your foundational scripture Gen 1:26 is dealing first of all primarily with the creation of mankind within the context of the rest of creation. If you examine Gen 1;1-2 “In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth. The earth was formless and void, and darkness was over the surface of the deep, and the Spirit of God was moving over the surface of the waters.” (Gen 1:1-2 NASB) You will see that the whole of creation is centered around God who was doing it without the help or counsel of angels yet the key point I would like you to see is that in verse 2 a different member of the trinity is spoken of as having intimate involvement with the creation. That would be the Spirit of God or as we call Him the Holy Spirit. We have now two members of the Godhead involved in creation. But what about the third? Well in Colossians we have the answer. “He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation. For by Him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities--all things have been created through Him and for Him. He is before all things, and in Him all things hold together.” (Col 1:15-17 NASB) And since all three members of the Godhead were present and active participants in the creation of the world, I would assume when God said let us make man in our own image He was not talking to angles but to the other members of the Godhead who were present and involved. Following Him |
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75 | Connection between Daniel 9:11 and US? | Dan 9:11 | following him | 123315 | ||
Gak1; The context of this passage is of Daniel finding in the scriptures that the time of their captivity in Babylon was almost over and so he began seeking God for forgiveness for the past sins of the nation Isreal which God punished by send Israel into the captivity. The curse refers to the things God said He would do to Israel if they would not keep His statutes. |
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76 | Does the many include Israel? | Dan 9:27 | following him | 134316 | ||
Hello all; In dan 9:27 the "Beast" makes a covenant with "The many". My understanding is that the many refer to the nations of the world. But does that include Isreal? I know that we assume that it does but in most places I am aware of when God speak of all nations it does not always include Isreal but only gentile nations (see Joel ch 3). Could it be possible that someone in Israel makes the covenant with the many i.e. the nations of the world? Blsessing to you Aaron |
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77 | Does God judge nations directly? | Obad 1:2 | following him | 131195 | ||
Hello DocTrinsograce; Please forgive my barging in on this discussion but I would like to add my 1 cent. This is a topic of great interest to me. I agree with much of what you stated. I’ve read many of your posts and have appreciated them greatly. I come to have a lot of respect for your views. “The Bible is a message from God. Many things have happened to human beings since our first parents came into being. Yet, of all those things, God specifically chose only a small set of events to record. I am certain that each of these events actually took place, and yet they reflect the truth on many different levels. A God like ours can arrange these things without any trouble at all. Thus, a statement of Isaiah, for example, can be a message to the people of his own time, to the people of a few generations later, to the people of the time of the Advent, as well as to us today.” About this next one I have a question. ”On the other hand, one has to be careful of not over spiritualizing things. If we don't have the explicit authority from scripture to spiritualize a narrative, we must not presume on the scriptures themselves. We can speculate, as long as we firmly understand that that is what we are doing. Speculation should never be the basis for determining doctrine.” What is “Explicit authority (from scripture) to spiritualize a narrative”? I don’t believe you mean that the scripture has to actually say “It’s OK to spiritualize here” but who determines what can be spiritualized and what cant? If you look in Matt 2:15 “He remained there until the death of Herod. This was to fulfill what had been spoken by the Lord through the prophet: "OUT OF EGYPT I CALLED MY SON." The context of Hosea 11:1 which Matt quotes is clearly regarding Israel yet Matthew (inspired by the Holy Spirit) spiritualizes it to refer to Jesus. In Gen 22 regarding Abraham sacrificing his son, the real context is God testing Abraham’s faith yet everyone I know spiritualizes this to be a prefiguration or similitude (I love that word “similitude”) of God the Father sacrificing Jesus. Yet I don’t know of any scripture that indicates it can be or has been spiritualized in this way by any of the apostles or disciples. Perhaps you know of one? So who is to determine which scriptures can be spiritualized or interpreted as a prefiguration or similitude? Have you ever given a scripture to a group of people and then asked, ”What this does this scripture mean?” How many different answers did you get? I’ve gotten several. Does it mean there are all wrong? It depends on how the Lord is using that particular scripture to influence that person. I myself have received “revelation” about myself or the way God deals with me or situations from scriptures that are not related to the context of what I was revealed. I do not regard such “revelations” as being the interpretation of the scripture though, just something God is dealing with me personally about nor would I teach it. I would agree with you concerning the example of the preacher you heard. The context of the passage does not lead itself to his conclusion. However, I can not say the Holy spirit has reveal to him something that is not true. The idea that the gospel has been given to the gentiles after the Jews (for the most part) rejected it is solid. It just isn’t supported by the scripture he used. Again the danger would be if he insisted that this was the real context and meaning of that scripture. This is perhaps one of the main reasons churches split. Because someone gets a personal revelation from God from a particular scripture, and instead of taking it as God dealing with something in their own life they claim it as the real interpretation. A “New revelation for the church.” When nobody sees what he sees he leaves trying to take as many with him as possible. Interestingly enough the “New revelation “ usually become the main doctrine of the new church that is established, sometimes to the exclusion of real foundational doctrines. I have no problem with spiritualizing scripture as long as it is being rightly divided, i.e. rightly assigned to “personal revelation” or God dealing with you on a personal level and not to true context and doctrine. I hope I’ve explained myself well enough to be understood. Although I think I confused myself. Blessing to you Aaron |
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78 | Does God plunge mortals into ignorance? | Obad 1:8 | following him | 130870 | ||
Hello Reighnskye; You ask if: “Even though we refer to God as light, does God sometimes pluge mortals into the darkness of ignorance?” and you use Obadiah 1:8 "Will I not on that day," declares the LORD, "Destroy wise men from Edom and understanding from the mountain of Esau?” as a reference verse. I would say it depends on what you would call wisdom. In the instances where I have read of wise men in the scripture it has refered to those in a position to influence kings and rulers with their input (except in 1 Cor 1). Were these mentioned in Obadiah those sort? In my opinion yes. What kind of wisdom did they possess? That of God as described in Prov 8 or that as described in 1 Cor. 1:20-29. The context of the passage in Obadiah indicates it was the later type of wisdom which God does not consider wisdom at all. Therefore I don’t see how destroying these wise men would be plunging the people into a darkness of ignorance. The wisdom of these wisemen had already done that. 1 Corinthians 1:20-29 20 Where is the wise man? Where is the scribe? Where is the debater of this age? Has not God made foolish the wisdom of the world? 21 For since in the wisdom of God the world through its wisdom did not come to know God, God was well-pleased through the foolishness of the message preached to save those who believe. 22 For indeed Jews ask for signs and Greeks search for wisdom; 23 but we preach Christ crucified, to Jews a stumbling block and to Gentiles foolishness, 24 but to those who are the called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God. 25 Because the foolishness of God is wiser than men, and the weakness of God is stronger than men. 26 For consider your calling, brethren, that there were not many wise according to the flesh, not many mighty, not many noble; 27 but God has chosen the foolish things of the world to shame the wise, and God has chosen the weak things of the world to shame the things which are strong, 28 and the base things of the world and the despised God has chosen, the things that are not, so that He may nullify the things that are, 29 so that no man may boast before God. Blessing to you Aaron |
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79 | Does God plunge mortals into ignorance? | Obad 1:8 | following him | 130901 | ||
Hello again Reighnskye; “I guess that I'm under the impression that humanity born in sin never really possessed the higher wisdom in the first place.” Proverbs 8 says that wisdom has existed from the beginning and the start of it was seeking God. Rom 1:18-21 shows that they knew about it but made a deliberate choice to reject it. The evidence of God’s existance “His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature,” was always there for them to see. “Children from the womb lack the light of spiritual awareness, and therefore cannot discern between good and evil without the Law of Moses to eventually instruct them.” I’m not convienced this is completely true. Children seem to have a far keener sense of spiritual things than adults. We very recently had a child in our church that was sick but saw an angel. The angel came and spoke to him saying that he was sent to heal him and he did. It is us adults that have years of dealings in this world of corruption that have a difficult time in sensing the spiritual realm. Children are far more likely to have faith in Christ than we adults. As for children discerning between good and evil I do think you are right that they cannot without some form of instruction indicating to them what is right and what is wrong. And even then they often chose the wrong because they are very much driven by self interest. ”Does God elevate mortals to the light of spiritual awareness prior to their rejection of the gospel?” I don’t believe you can reject something you have no knowledge of. Therefore they must been given a choice to chose from. But the choice may not have come from being elevated to “the light of Spiritual awareness” as Rom 1:18-21 indicates that even the natural creation declares the glory of God. Rom 1:18-21 “For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men who suppress the truth in unrighteousness, 19 because that which is known about God is evident within them; for God made it evident to them. 20 For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excuse. 21 For even though they knew God, they did not honor Him as God or give thanks, but they became futile in their speculations, and their foolish heart was darkened. We can see in the OT people like Noah and Enoch who found grace with God prior to the giving of the law. The fact that at least these two had some form of relationship with God show it was possible for all during that time to also. Those that rejected Him did so inspite of the testimony of the entire creation. “Or do people usually merely reject the gospel with no more than the Law of Moses to enlighten them?” I think many people reject the pospel because of the Law of Moses, thinking it just a bunch of rules and regulations. They never realizing that the Law points us to Christ who gives us freedom and the Father who conforms us to the image of His Son. It is not a thing that we can do ourselves, it’s all a work of God’s grace in us. Blessing to you Aaron |
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80 | Does God plunge mortals into ignorance? | Obad 1:8 | following him | 131197 | ||
Hello Reighnskye; You last stated: ”I guess what I'm trying to get at (or conversely understand better myself) is that an adult's rejection of the gospel is largely made via one's own earthly mind and mortal level of understanding.” ”Indeed all wisdom originates from God, both spiritual and earthly. Nonetheless, I personally tend to view the large majority of supposed conversions and/or rejections of the gospel as being made according to the earthly type of knowledge, wherein the volition is somewhat compromised due to lack of spiritual awareness.” You are right. It needs to be. God created us to be not only spiritual but physical as well. All of God’s dealings with man have occurred in the real physical world both in the OT and in the NT. His death was physical, so was His resurrection. His resurrected body was spiritual but also physical. His plan is to redeem creation (physical). When he originally created the world, including us, it was physical, “And behold it was very good” It is very difficult for people even Christians to understand the spiritual or eternity. So God reveals Himself physically (Jesus). And we respond according to the physical revelation. Our choice to follow Christ is based upon His interaction with us here in the real world; The question is whether we go beyond that to actually have a relationship with the Father Who is Spirit. Another factor influencing conversions/ or rejections of the gospel is how we Christians relate to each other. John 13:35 "By this all men will know that you are My disciples, if you have love for one another." How we love each other will determine if they see Christ or not. ”It is my personal perspective that the majority of religious conversions and/or rejections of the gospel are done on a shallow level of earthly psuedo-consciousness, thereby largely lacking any degree of eternal impact.” I would have to sadly agree with you here. It seems so few people who convert actually go further than what is commonly called “Fire insurance” level Christianity. They don’t grow into a real relationship with the living God and Creator, Jesus Christ that He originally created us for. I appreciate your posts. They have been quite refreshing and thought provoking. Thank you. Blessing to you Aaron |
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