Results 221 - 240 of 242
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: ebrain Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
221 | What is apostasy? | 2 Thess 2:3 | ebrain | 187491 | ||
Hi Vincent, and thank you for your question. The Greek word from which we get "apostasy", can have more than one meaning, as the material bellow indicates, which I hope will be of help tp you. The Lord bless you. ebrain. Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless the apostasy comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction, -2 Thessalonians 2:3 I believe that there is a strong possibility that 2 Thessalonians 2:3 is speaking of the rapture. What do I mean? Some pretribulationists, like myself, think that the Greek noun apostasia, usually translated "apostasy," is a reference to the rapture and should be translated "departure." Thus, this passage would be saying that the day of the Lord will not come until the rapture comes before it. If apostasia is a reference to a physical departure, then 2 Thessalonians 2:3 is strong evidence for pretribulationism. The Meaning of Apostasia The Greek noun apostasia is only used twice in the New Testament. In addition to 2 Thessalonians 2:3, it occurs in Acts 21:21 where, speaking of Paul, it is said, "that you are teaching all the Jews who are among the Gentiles to forsake (apostasia)Moses." The word is a Greek compound of apo " from" and istemi "stand." Thus, it has the core meaning of "away from" or "departure." The Liddell and Scott Greek Lexicon defines apostasia first as "defection, revolt;" then secondly as "departure, disappearance."[1] Gordon Lewis explains how the verb from which the noun apostasia is derived supports the basic meaning of departure in the following: The verb may mean to remove spatially. There is little reason then to deny that the noun can mean such a spatial removal or departure. Since the noun is used only one other time in the New Testament of apostasy from Moses (Acts 21:21), we can hardly conclude that its Biblical meaning is necessarily determined. The verb is used fifteen times in the New Testament. Of these fifteen, only three have anything to do with a departure from the faith (Luke 8;13; 1 Tim. 4:1; Heb 3:12). The word is used for departing from iniquity (2 Tim. 2:19), from ungodly men(1 Tim. 6:5), from the temple (Luke 2:27), from the body (2 Cor. 12:8), and from persons (Acts 12:10; Luke 4:13).[2] "It is with full assurance of proper exegetical study and with complete confidence in the original languages," concludes Daniel Davey, "that the word meaning of apostasia is defined as departure."[3] Paul Lee Tan adds the following: What precisely does Paul mean when he says that "the falling away" (2:3) must come before the tribulation? The definite article "the" denotes that this will be a definite event, an event distinct from the appearance of the Man of Sin. The Greek word for "falling away", taken by itself, does not mean religious apostasy or defection. Neither does the word mean "to fall," as the Greeks have another word for that. [pipto, I fall; TDI] The best translation of the word is "to depart." The apostle Paul refers here to a definite event which he calls "the departure," and which will occur just before the start of the tribulation. This is the rapture of the church.[4] So the word has the core meaning of departure and it depends upon the context to determine whether it is used to mean physical departure or an abstract departure such as departure from the faith. |
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222 | Who is he who restrains?ebrain. | 2 Thess 2:7 | ebrain | 188001 | ||
For some reason that I do not understand, the verse of Scripture that I specified, and which is shown bellow, did not appear with my question. 2 Thess 2:7 For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only he who now restrains will do so until he is taken out of the way. My question is, "Who is he who restrains?" Thank you. ebrain. |
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223 | pre-adamic/cain's wife | 1 Tim 2:15 | ebrain | 163503 | ||
As far as I am aware, the word of God gives no indication of this, read 1 Timothy 2:13-15, which seems to indicate that Eve had not had any children before the fall, in other words the human race was not at that time in existance,and had to be started, in order that Jesus could be born into it, and thereby provide salvation for both Adan and Eve. | ||||||
224 | Is Jesus a role model for us? | Hebrews | ebrain | 161984 | ||
Yes indeed He is a role model for you, I suggest you read the following verses. Phil 2:5-13, also John 1:18. 5:19,and 30. 7:16-17. 11:41b-42. 14:9-11, but especially v 10. Acts 2:22. See how He did it, and you will see how you also can do it. "Not My will, but Thine be done". Matt 11:27-30. is you will find also helpfull. Remember we are looking here at the true Humanity, and not the Deity of Jesus, He is showing us how man is intended to behave in respect of, and towards God. Please feel free to write to me direct, if you would like to do so, I can be contacted at pabrain@indent.co.uk May the Lord bless you abundantly, and keep you safe. Edwin Brain. |
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225 | Isaih Chapter 42 Verse 8 is it Jesus? | Heb 1:6 | ebrain | 170677 | ||
The verse you quote must be read in context from v6 to v9, and then compare with Heb 1:5-9. Verse 5 says "You are my Son", then v 6 says "Let all the angels of God worship him". Isaiah 42:8 says "I will not give my glory to another". He is not giving His glory to another, He is giving it to Himself, ie, Jesus, and God are one. When reading these two passages of Scripture, how can any one doubt that Jesus is in fact God. |
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226 | What's the full meaning of Hebrews 6:4-6 | Heb 6:6 | ebrain | 184848 | ||
Subject: Hebrews Ch 6 vs 4-6. First read v 9 before you read 4-6, you will see that the writer is quite sure that sure that what is refereed to in 4-6 has not been committed by them, but there was a fear that it might be. As the title of this letter indicates, this group of believers were all Jews who had accepted Jesus as the Messiah, and were as a result being so severely persecuted by the majority of Jews who did not convert, and that they were seriously considering returning back to established Judaism, until such times as things had died down, and then return back again to believing in Jesus as before. The writer is stating at 4-6, that this is an impossibility,,,, and that is all that is being said here. The word of God does not disagree with itself, and cannot be made to disagree with itself. Why do you suppose that the Lord put so many verses in Scripture to teach Once Saved Always Saved if it were not so?. You are left with a choice, either you believe that this one passage at Heb 6:4-6, indicates that you can loose your salvation, and therefore the 14 passages of Scripture I refereed you to must all be wrong, or you conclude that the 14 are correct, and there must be another explanation for the 1. Regarding Rev 3:21, and similar verses which refer to what is called "The perseverance of the saints", merely confirm that true Christians do exactly that, whereas those who are not the real thing don't. Real born again believers have no alternative, they cannot, and will not perish. If they could then God would be a liar, and the God I worship is not a liar. 1st Cor 10:13, is very helpful here. |
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227 | can one lose their salvation | Heb 6:6 | ebrain | 184852 | ||
What follows may be of help, it was a post I sent to someone who maintained that it was possible to loose one's salvation. Subject: Once Saved Allways Saved. Col 3:3 For you died, and your life is hidden with Christ in God. Please tell me how it is possible to loose that which is hidden with Christ in God.? 2Ti 1:12 For this reason I also suffer these things; nevertheless I am not ashamed, for I know whom I have believed and am persuaded that He is able to keep what I have committed to Him until that Day. Please explain why these words of Paul cannot possibly apply also, to all Christians?, are you saying that He is not able to keep what I have committed to Him until that Day. Be very careful how you answer this question,, you could be calling God a liar. Jud 1:24 Now to Him who is able to keep you* from stumbling, And to present you faultless Before the presence of His glory with exceeding joy, Are you saying that He is not able to keep me from stumbling, And not able to present me faultless Before the presence of His glory with exceeding joy, Be very careful how you answer this question,, you could be calling God a liar. Psa 34:7 The angel* of the LORD encamps all around those who fear Him, And delivers them I find the above Scripture verse to be both encouraging, and comforting, I hope you do also Phl 1:6 being confident of this very thing, that He who has begun a good work in you will complete it until the day of Jesus Christ; Tell me is He able to do this, or not, is it dependant on me giving Him my permission? What about the following verses. Isa 46:9 Remember the former things of old, For I am God, and there is no other; I am God, and there is none like Me, Isa 46:10 Declaring the end from the beginning, And from ancient times things that are not yet done, Saying, 'My counsel shall stand, And I will do all My pleasure, Am I, a mere human able to prevent God's will being done? Jhn 10:27 "My sheep hear My voice, and I know them, and they follow Me. Jhn 10:28 "And I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; neither shall anyone snatch them out of My hand. Jhn 10:29 "My Father, who has given them to Me, is greater than all; and no one is able to snatch them out of My Father's hand. Jhn 10:30 "I and My Father are one." Eternal life is everlasting life, and as Jesus says above, they who have it "shall never perish". How then can you possibly say that they will perish, when Jesus says they will not? Rom 8:28 And we know that all things work together for good to those who love God, to those who are the called according to His purpose. Rom 8:29 For whom He foreknew, He also predestined to be conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the firstborn among many brethren. Rom 8:30 Moreover whom He predestined, these He also called; whom He called, these He also justified; and whom He justified, these He also glorified. Note that the word "glorified", is written in the past tense, because from the Divine view point in eternity, it has already happened, do not try to understand it, but take God at his word. A real genuine article born again Christian is eternally secure. God has said so, I believe Him, and that's good enough for me. Jhn 6:37 "All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will by no means cast out. Jhn 6:38 "For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me. Jhn 6:39 "This is the will of the Father who sent Me, that of all He has given Me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up at the last day. Jhn 6:40 "And this is the will of Him who sent Me, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in Him may have everlasting life; and I will raise him up at the last day." Please tell me how anyone can read the above four verses, and still maintain that, "Salvation can be lost"? The Fathers will is that Jesus should not lose any of those who come to Him. Is Jesus able to do His Fathers will, yes, or no? This is not a case of you not losing your salvation, but of Jesus not losing your salvation. You carn't , and He wont. To be continued. |
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228 | Does the Bible tell us to go to Church? | Heb 10:25 | ebrain | 164060 | ||
I think you will find the above verse helpfull. It would appear from your question, that your daughter is not saved, which would explain why she has no desire to go to church, if however she does get saved, then in all probibility, she will have a strong desire to meet with other christians. The verse at Hebrews 10:25, is addressed to saved persons, and not the un-converted. |
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229 | how can faith be defined. | Heb 11:6 | ebrain | 180623 | ||
I can think of no better verse to describe "Faith", as seen from God's point of view, than Heb 11:6, Hbr 11:6 But without faith it is impossible to please Him, for he who comes to God must believe that He is, and that He is a rewarder of those who diligently seek Him. Note that the verse is in two parts, the first part is easy, even the devils believe, and tremble, see James 2:19. It is the second part that is the difficult bit. Exercising faith, is not "I hope it will happen", but "I know it will hapen". |
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230 | Is the name Christian being ridiculed? | James 2:5 | ebrain | 161685 | ||
No they were blaspheming the name of God. The one by whom you were chosen, and whose name you now take see verse 5. Remember you are now called the children of God, and by adoption you have taken His name. As Scripture says you do not take His name in vain, in other words it will not be a mistake to take His name in the sense of becomming a member of His family. They were making fun of the name by which you were called, ie, God's name. |
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231 | Is the Holy One Jesus of the Father? | 1 Pet 1:15 | ebrain | 160270 | ||
Both the Father, and Jesus are Holy, as is also the Holy Spirit, and it is He who called you. The Holy Spirit is the active one, the one who carries out the work of God. Read Genesis Ch 1 vs 1-2, and ask yourself why we are introduced to Him before anything happens?. |
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232 | Jesus preached in hell? | 1 Pet 3:19 | ebrain | 187392 | ||
Hi Ginger G. Following up on Tim Moran's post, let me give you bellow the answer I gave to someone who asked a similar question. You said. "I heard someone preaching that Jesus went to hell. Please confirm that this is wrong" There are two aspects to this question, both of which I hope to deal with here. Firstly did He who was made sin for us, ( 2Cr 5:21 For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.) also suffer for us in hell, or was His suffering on the cross sufficient, and secondly in respect of 1st Peter 3:18-20. Firstly. Jhn 19:30 So when Jesus had received the sour wine, He said, "It is finished!" And bowing His head, He gave up His spirit. "It is finished", "I have completed the work you sent me to do", nothing further is required. English translations of the Hebrew do not always give the understanding that a Jew would have reading the same verses Read all five of the following versions, and see what sort of understanding they give you. Note the second part of a verse will help you to understand the first part of the verse. Psa 16:10 For You will not leave my soul in Sheol, Nor will You allow Your Holy One to see corruption. (ESV) Psa 16:10 For you will not leave my soul among the dead* or allow your godly one* to rot in the grave. (NLT) Psa 16:10 because you will not abandon me to the grave,* nor will you let your Holy One* see decay.(NIV) Psa 16:10 For thou dost not give me up to Sheol, or let thy godly one see the Pit. (RSV) Psa 16:10 For thou wilt not leave my soul to Sheol; Neither wilt thou suffer thy holy one to see corruption. (ASV) Now just think for a moment, what happens to an unconverted/unsaved person. they die, are put into a grave, where the body sees corruption, and later on they are cast into Hell. In respect of this verse, and using the NIV, I would remove the word "abandon", and in its place put "consign", and that's the only word I would change. Note RSV, uses the expression, "not give me up to", Note. "to Sheol", and not "in Sheol". Secondly. Subject: Christ walking through hell ? Question (short): Christ walking through hell Question (full): Does anyone know where the Bible says Christ walked through hell and that he forgave some people there. Someone asked me recently where this was and I can't find it. I know in the Apostles Creed we say he died and arose on the 3rd day - what was he doing during that time? Can anybody help me with this? Note: There is no Biblical reference that I am aware of that speaks of Christ walking through hell. Just before He died upon the cross Jesus said "it is finished", in other words "nothing further is required". There is a Scripture that some people think indicates this, ie, 1st Peter Ch 3 v 18-20, however, it refers to the Spirit of Christ in Noah proclaiming to the people in Noah's day, (who are now in prison) just what was going to happen to them if they did not repent. See also 2 Peter 2:4-5. I hope this is of some help. The Lord bless you. ebrain. Note. At 1st Peter 3:18, it should read "but made alive by the Spirit", and not in the Spirit. see New King James Version. |
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233 | pls. explain john 14:21 | 2 Pet 1:4 | ebrain | 162065 | ||
What our Lord Jesus was speaking of was the soon to come indwelling of belivers by the Holy Spirit. In 2nd Peter 1:4. you are said to be "partakers of the Divine nature", whereas in Col 1:27 it is "Christ in you, the hope of glory". Another translation of John 14:21, is "If anyone loves me, he will keep my word, and my Father will love him, and we will come to him and make our home with him". |
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234 | Can a slave desire to be free? | 2 Pet 2:19 | ebrain | 164417 | ||
That depends on who you are a slave of, if of the devil, then yes, but if you are a slave of Jesus the Christ, then no. | ||||||
235 | Are there any scriptures for the rapture | 2 Pet 3:10 | ebrain | 188167 | ||
Hi M.Royal. Thank you for your post. Have a look at 1 Thess 4:13-18, also 1 Cor 15:51-58, and John 14:1-2. What follows may also be of help. ebrain. Comments on the "Rapture", verses in 2 Thess Ch 2. Every thing that is written in Scripture, must be read in context, and the context of what Paul says in verse 7 of Ch 2, must be read in view of the whole of that Chapter, and also what he had to say in his first letter to them, especially Ch 4:13-18. My attention is first drawn to verse 1 of 2 Thess 2, and "our gathering together to Him", I believe these words relate directly to, 1 Thess Ch 4:13-18, in other words the "Rapture", or it you like, our departure.. In verse 3 the word "apostsay", is used, this word can mean "falling away from", or "departing from", and in other parts of Scripture, it is used to refer to a falling away from, or a departure from the truth, however, I am convinced that here in verse 3, it means the departure of believers from earth, especially as this is what I believe Paul has in mind as seen in verse 1. It could, as some have suggested, very well be the Holy Spirit who restrains.. When the church is taken, the Holy Spirit will still be on earth. No one is able to take Him out of the way, although He might very well remove His restraint.. Note for example what He does in verses 11-12. 2 Thess 2:11 For this reason God will send upon them a deluding influence so that they will believe what is false, 2 Thess 2:12 in order that they all may be judged who did not believe the truth, but took pleasure in wickedness. Regarding, "He might very well remove His restraint", have a look at the verse bellow, and my comments thereon. 1 Cor 15:28 When all things are subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also will be subjected to the One who subjected all things to Him, so that God may be all in all. The Son will not, "be subjected", as no one, but no one is able to do that, however, He certainly is able to subject Himself. |
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236 | 1st John 3:9 | 1 John 3:9 | ebrain | 180588 | ||
Hi Dima. The problem in understanding this verse is that in a number of popular modern Bibles, additional words have been inserted which alter the meaning of the original Greek. For example I give below the , "New International Version". 1Jo 3:9 No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God's seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God. A far better translation is found in the "New King James Version", which reads 1Jo 3:9 Whoever has been born of God does not sin, for His seed remains in him; and he cannot sin, because he has been born of God. The reason why modern translators like those of the NIV, do this is in an attempt to reconcile the apparent contradiction between this verse, and the other verses in the same letter at Ch 1:8 through Ch2:2. Te facts of the matter are that John is here dealing with two different parts of the same person. The Christians "old nature", (which can do nothing but sin) in one part of his letter, and the Christians "new nature", (which cannot sin) in the other part of his letter. This is perhaps better explained by Paul in Romans 7:14-25. Rom 7:14 For we know that the law is spiritual, but I am carnal, sold under sin. Rom 7:15 For what I am doing, I do not understand. For what I will to do, that I do not practice; but what I hate, that I do. Rom 7:16 If, then, I do what I will not to do, I agree with the law that it is good. Rom 7:17 But now, it is no longer I who do it, but sin that dwells in me. Rom 7:18 For I know that in me (that is, in my flesh) nothing good dwells; for to will is present with me, but how to perform what is good I do not find. Rom 7:19 For the good that I will to do, I do not do; but the evil I will not to do, that I practice. Rom 7:20 Now if I do what I will not to do, it is no longer I who do it, but sin that dwells in me. Rom 7:21 I find then a law, that evil is present with me, the one who wills to do good. Rom 7:22 For I delight in the law of God according to the inward man. Rom 7:23 But I see another law in my members, warring against the law of my mind, and bringing me into captivity to the law of sin which is in my members. Rom 7:24 O wretched man that I am! Who will deliver me from this body of death? Rom 7:25 I thank God--through Jesus Christ our Lord! So then, with the mind I myself serve the law of God, but with the flesh the law of sin. Part of this last veres 25, might be amplified as, "So then,with the mind (my new nature) I myself serve the law of God, but with the flesh (my old nature) the law of sin. I do hope that this will be of help to you. May the Lord bless you, and keep you safe. Edwin. (ebrain) |
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237 | Greater Love | 1 John 4:7 | ebrain | 164585 | ||
Read Romans 5:5. The Love that is "poured out" is in fact the love of God via the Holy Spirit, but this will only happen if you allow The Lord to have complete, and total control of you, and all that you are. How to do this is shown by Jesus, see John 5:19 and 30, also John 14:10. "Not my will, but thine be done". |
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238 | Greater Love | 1 John 4:7 | ebrain | 164586 | ||
Read Romans 5:5. The Love that is "poured out" is in fact the love of God via the Holy Spirit, but this will only happen if you allow The Lord to have complete, and total control of you, and all that you are. How to do this is shown by Jesus, see John 5:19 and 30, also John 14:10. "Not my will, but thine be done". Happy Christmas Mark to you, and all your family. God bless. Edwin. |
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239 | How old is God | Rev 1:8 | ebrain | 168556 | ||
Read Revelation 1:8, also 21:6, and 22:13. "I am the Alpha, and the Omega", the beginning and the end. In order to have an age, He would have had to have a beginning, Please tell me how one who is the beginning, could have had a beginning?. I find it much easier to think of God as having no beginning, than to think of Him having a beginning. What He is saying here is that He existed before anything else did, see John 1:3. |
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240 | Where in the bible does it say that Jesu | Rev 1:18 | ebrain | 167165 | ||
There are two passages of Scripture, that people may have heard read out, and cannot remember what exactly was word for word said, and are as a result confused. These verses are found at Matthew 16:18-19, and 1st Peter 3:18-20. Jesus of course did not go to hell, He said "It is finished", before He died, therefore no visit to hell was required. What Peter is refering to in these verses is that it was the Spirit of Jesus preaching through Noah, to the people who were alive in Noah's day, and who are now in prison awaiting judgment. Peter has similar thoughts in mind at 2nd Peter 2:4-5. I hope that this might be of some help. |
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