Results 21 - 40 of 248
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions Author: Makarios Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | Liberty Savard? | Bible general Archive 1 | Makarios | 13215 | ||
Has anyone ever heard of the author Liberty Savard or read any of her books? She has a website at http://www.libertysavard.com/index.html |
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22 | Popular Bible version for Catholics? | Bible general Archive 1 | Makarios | 68887 | ||
Greetings Emmaus, I was curious as to which Bible version do Catholics most frequently use? Are you most likely to attend a Catholic service and discover many people toting a New American Bible or is it more varied than that? Blessings to you, Makarios |
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23 | Greek genitive cases and the word "of" | Bible general Archive 1 | Makarios | 69047 | ||
Interpretive Challenges... Greek genitive cases of the word "of", comparing literal translations to dynamic equivalence translation.. According to the following examples, which translation of the Greek genitive case is superior? The traditionally more literal translation or its 'dynamic equivalent'? Example 1: Ephesians 1:13.. [NASB] "In Him, you also, after listening to the message of truth, the gospel of your salvation- having also believed, you were sealed in Him with the Holy Spirit of promise," [NRSV] "In him you also, when you had heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation, and had believed in him, were marked with the seal of the promised Holy Spirit;" Since the Greek genitive has a wide range, is "the promised Holy Spirit" stronger here, or is the more literal "Holy Spirit of promise" more precise? Other examples include: Example 2: Ephesians 1:17-18 [NKJV] "... that you may know what is the hope of His calling.." "... in order that you may know the hope to which he has called you.." [NIV] Is one "stronger" than the other? Or do these translations communicate entirely differently in these verses? Example 3: Hebrews 1:3 [KJV] " ... and upholding all things by the word of his power.." [NRSV] "... and he sustains all things by his powerful word. .." Which descriptive genitives in the above examples are 'stronger' or more accurate? |
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24 | Greek genitive cases of the word "of" | OT general | Makarios | 69066 | ||
Interpretive Challenges... Greek genitive cases of the word "of", comparing literal translations to dynamic equivalence translation.. According to the following examples, which translation of the Greek genitive case is superior? The traditionally more literal translation or its 'dynamic equivalent'? Example 1: Ephesians 1:13.. [NASB] "In Him, you also, after listening to the message of truth, the gospel of your salvation- having also believed, you were sealed in Him with the Holy Spirit of promise," [NRSV] "In him you also, when you had heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation, and had believed in him, were marked with the seal of the promised Holy Spirit;" Since the Greek genitive has a wide range, is "the promised Holy Spirit" stronger here, or is the more literal "Holy Spirit of promise" more precise? Other examples include: Example 2: Ephesians 1:17-18 [NKJV] "... that you may know what is the hope of His calling.." "... in order that you may know the hope to which he has called you.." [NIV] Is one "stronger" than the other? Or do these translations communicate entirely differently in these verses? Example 3: Hebrews 1:3 [KJV] " ... and upholding all things by the word of his power.." [NRSV] "... and he sustains all things by his powerful word. .." Which descriptive genitives in the above examples are 'stronger' or more accurate? (I will retract this question if not responded to in a 24 hour timeframe. Thank you.) |
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25 | Using the "Roman's Road" to evangelize? | NT general Archive 1 | Makarios | 6343 | ||
The most 'popular' way for Christians to lead people to salvation using the Bible is by using the "Roman's Road". (Romans 3:23, 6:23, 5:8, 10:9,13). Over the years that I have been a Christian, I have adopted a little bit different Scriptural approach, using (in this order): Romans 3:23 (realize that you are a sinner), Romans 6:23 (penalty for sin is death), 1 Peter 3:18 (Christ paid the penalty), Acts 3:19 (we must repent), Ephesians 2:8 (must accept Christ by faith) and Romans 10:9,13 (must confess Jesus as Lord).. This approach is a little different but equally effective! I am curious, are there other 'methods' or ways that people use to lead others to Christ using the Bible? | ||||||
26 | What is "Gnosticism"? | NT general Archive 1 | Makarios | 7821 | ||
What is the "Gnostic" view of Christ? What is "Gnosticism"? | ||||||
27 | Co-authors 'inspired'? | NT general Archive 1 | Makarios | 9187 | ||
In which books of the New Testament did Paul write with the aid of a co-author? Were the co-authors 'inspired' as well? | ||||||
28 | Multiple authors for Paul's epistles? | NT general Archive 1 | Makarios | 9472 | ||
Does the mention of other people in the beginning of Paul's epistles suggest that they aided Paul in authorship of those epistles? 1 Cor. 1:1 - Sosthenes 2 Cor. 1:1 - Timothy Gal. 1:1 - 'all the brethren' or many stenographers Phil. 1:1 - Timothy Col. 1:1 - Timothy 1 Thess. - Silvanus and Timothy 2 Thess. - Silvanus and Timothy Philemon - Timothy Since these people are mentioned in the beginning of each book, does this mean that they were also stenographers? |
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29 | Sketch/profile on Joseph (Jacob's son)? | Genesis | Makarios | 7096 | ||
Does anyone know where I can find a sketch/profile on the life of Joseph? I need some in-depth information for a Bible class.. Thanks in advance! | ||||||
30 | The mark on Cain is the mark of beast? | Genesis | Makarios | 19001 | ||
Dear casiv, You sure do like numbers! :) I excelled in mathematics and Calculus also. However, you still have NOT answered the question: What Scriptural evidence is there that proves that the mark that God put upon Cain (Genesis 4:15) is the mark of the beast? (Rev. 13:16-18) The Bible is God's Holy Word. If you can find it IN THE BIBLE, then you may be able to convince me. If not, then this also remains an answer based on nothing but pure speculation on your part. Your Brother in Christ, Nolan |
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31 | Chronology of creation? | Gen 1:1 | Makarios | 9178 | ||
Was the chronology of creation plants then animals then man (Gen. 1) or plants then man then animals (Gen. 2)? |
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32 | Book, chapter and verse? | Gen 1:26 | Makarios | 44861 | ||
Greetings Lady K, Can you provide us with book, chapter and verse that will help us in answering your question? |
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33 | Sixth day or Seventh day? | Gen 2:22 | Makarios | 9177 | ||
Did God finish the creation on the 6th day (Gen. 1) or the seventh day (Gen. 2:22)? | ||||||
34 | Sons of God cannot be angels in Gen 6:4 | Gen 6:4 | Makarios | 3837 | ||
The problem with interpreting 'sons of God' as angels in Genesis 6:4 stems not from Job 4:18, but with the fall of satan and his unholy angels itself. Angels are referred to in Jude 6-7 with Sodom and Gomorrah, but the 'gross immorality' with 'strange flesh' is not at all referring to angels here but to Sodom and Gomorrah- both cities that practiced homosexuality (Gen. 19:5). Angels are referred to in 2 Peter 2:4-5 which explains how the angels fell from grace, speaking of a once and for all judgment on the unholy angels. Now are angels permitted to continually sin to this day? I don't think so. If you also believe that angels cannot perpetually sin, then you also believe that satan and his angels fell ONCE from grace, that there was ONE time when iniquity was found in the angelic realm. Now the first recorded sin that we know of in history occurred in Genesis 3:6-7. If you believe that satan and his angels fell from grace only once, then he had to have already fallen from grace with his unholy angels at this time or THIS occurrence itself is the fall of satan and his angels- by enticing mankind to sin. Support for this view can be found in Ezekiel 28:12-18 where it is thought to refer to the fall of satan here. Also, Isaiah 14:12-15 is also recited as referring to the fall of satan. In verse 13 (and in the passage in Ezekiel), this is referring to a sin of 'haughtiness' and exultation rather than the sin of lust. Haughtiness is a sin of the spirit whereas lust is a sin of the flesh. This explains how the angels cannot be given in marriage (Matt. 22:30), but were susceptible to the sin of pride at one time and one time only. (their fall) Now if the first recorded sin is in Gen. 3:6 then how can Gen. 6:4 be referring to angels if they had already fallen from grace? There was a considerable amount of time between Gen. 3:6 and 6:4. I believe that since the angels were not given fleshly bodies then they would not be able to commit a sin of the flesh, since our deliverance from the sins of the flesh is a mystery to angels! (1 Peter 1:12). This is why I believe that they had to commit a sin of the spirit, and that sin being pride, with satan as their leader (Isaiah 14:13). For it was out of pride and envy that satan rebelled against God- to have His throne, and it was also out of envy that the Scribes and the Pharisees handed Jesus over to be crucified (Matt 27:18). When satan fell, he took a third of the angels of heaven with him (Rev. 12:4, 7-9). satan and his angels did not do this out of lust for the daughters of men, but because of their rebellion against God. So in result, the fall of satan and his angels had long occurred by the time of Genesis 6:4, when the line of Seth (the "Seed" in Gen. 4:25-26), who began to call upon the name of the Lord, began to intermarry with the daughters of men, being led astray by their own fleshly lust in Genesis 6:4. This is the reason why the 'sons of God' refers to the line of Seth rather than the angels of heaven. Note: I have chosen not to glorify the name of 'satan' to the point of violating grammatical rules.. | ||||||
35 | Textual evidence from Genesis 6:4 | Gen 6:4 | Makarios | 3840 | ||
Right on Ron! I most certainly agree with you! To study the use of the word 'sons' in Genesis 6:4, I went straight to the New Strong's Exhaustive Concordance which says that the word 'sons' used in Gen. 6:4 is the Hebrew word 'ben' (or son- the builder of a family name).. It is commonly perceived that Moses wrote the book of Genesis, and he used the word 'sons' to describe the Godly line of Seth. The author of Job is unknown, although the author was an Israelite. And Moses could not have written the book of Job since he was long since dead (Deut. 34) at the time of Job. But the author of Job used 'sons' of God to refer to angels in heaven with satan among them. So we have established that the word 'sons' that is used in Gen. 6:4 does not directly refer to angels and that the writers of Genesis and Job (while being inspired by the same Holy Spirit) used the same word to describe men in one verse and angels in another. (Genesis 6:4 and Job 1:6) I hope that this helps to clarify many things. | ||||||
36 | Judith, you are preaching a false Gospel | Gen 6:4 | Makarios | 43755 | ||
Greetings Judith, How do you deal with Romans 11:5-6? "In the same way then, there has also come to be at the present time a remnant according to God's gracious choice. But if it is by grace, it is no longer on the basis of works, otherwise grace is no longer grace." [NASB] If you teach that one is saved by their deeds, then you are preaching a false Gospel, and a different Gospel than that which has clearly been shown to you by quoting the Bible. Please read 2 Cor. 11:4 and Galatians 1:7, which speak about preaching a different or false Gospel. - Makarios |
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37 | Gen 6:7 and Num 23:19 contradicting? | Gen 6:7 | Makarios | 9169 | ||
Is there a contradiction between this verse (Genesis 6:7) and Numbers 23:19? Numbers 23:19 states (NASB), 'God is not a man, that He should lie, Nor a son of man, that He should repent; Has He said, and will He not do it? Or has He spoken, and will He not make it good?' |
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38 | Gen 6:7 and Num 23:19 contradictory? | Gen 6:7 | Makarios | 9231 | ||
Risen, Again, thanks for the website, but after viewing the website, I have not found an answer to my orginal question. Numbers 23:19 states (NASB), 'God is not a man, that He should lie, Nor a son of man, that He should repent; Has He said, and will He not do it? Or has He spoken, and will He not make it good?' Is there a contradiction between this verse (Genesis 6:7) and Numbers 23:19? Thanks in advance, Nolan! |
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39 | Dinosaurs mentioned in the Bible? | Gen 9:2 | Makarios | 190568 | ||
I have undergone a study on the Dinosaurs. What does the Bible say about them? First, I want to make clear that I believe that the earth is only thousands of years old, not millions or billions. Second, I believe that God created the earth in six 24-hour days (Exodus 20:11). I don't expect you all to agree with me, and I would appreciate you tellng me if you feel differently about anything that I have come up with. Genesis 1:21-25 tells us that God created the animals (including the Dinosaurs) and humankind on the sixth day. Man was given the task to name these animals but Adam used names like 'behemoth' and 'leviathan'. It is conceivable that man and dinosaur lived on the earth together right up to and after the great worldwide flood. And Noah might have included a few smaller, younger representatives of the dinosaurs in his Ark. But many other kinds of plants and animals were lost forever (Genesis 6:17). It is interesting to note that animals began to fear men only after the flood (Genesis 9:2-3).. However, I am convinced that there was a drop in temperature (Job 37:6-10, 38:22,29) in the earth after the flood, which explains the existence of Antarctica, the Glaciers and the Polar icecaps, (which was God's way of dealing with the surplus of water that sprang forth in Genesis 7:11) and this temperature change may have contributed to the dinosaurs' disappearance upon the earth. But they at least were around by the time of Job, and the people of Job's time knew about dinosaurs since dinosaurs are discribed in detail in Job 40:15 to 41:34. I do not believe that birds are direct descendants of dinosaurs, since the Bible speaks of the migration of the hawk (Job 39:26), the dove, stork, thrush and swift (Jeremiah 8:7).. In other words, birds flew across the earth from the beginning of time and they are not the end result of any kind of evolution. Also, Genesis 1:29-30 declares that all animals and people began as plant eaters and the world was entirely vegetarian at the beginning. But eventually animals became carnivorous and people ate meat only until after the flood (Genesis 9:3). It is interesting to note that even though animals did become carnivorous, they will return to a nonagressive nature (Isaiah 11:6-7). So will we become vegetarians in the future? :) So did the dinosaurs breathe fire? Job 41 leads me to believe that this may have been likely, which would explain the source of "Fire Breathing Dragons" stories. What about the Loch Ness monster? Maybe. There are many underwater caverns that have not been explored on this earth. I'm not ruling out the possibility that all sea dwelling dinosaurs are extinct. But I am strictly against evolution of any kind, since Psalm 94:9 clearly states that God formed the ears and the eyes. Romans 1:20 is interesting in this light- that we are without excuse in wake of God's awesome creation. Another water/fire parallel here, to reflect back on the worldwide flood, is the second and final judgment of the future in which the heavens and the earth will be cleansed by fire! (2 Peter 3:10-12). I believe that the world is a lot younger than scientists think and that man and dinosaurs co-existed at some point. I am still studying continental drift and things of that nature.. I hope you enjoyed the results of my study, and I wanted to share this with you to provide a NON-evolution way of looking at Dinosaurs. |
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40 | Different languages already in place? | Gen 10:5 | Makarios | 10521 | ||
Does this verse (Genesis 10:5) as well as Gen. 10:20 and 10:31 suggest that different languages were already in place before the Tower of Babel in Gen. 11:9? | ||||||
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