Results 181 - 200 of 516
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: ebrain Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
181 | what is the wages of sin? | Rom 6:23 | ebrain | 180226 | ||
Rom 6:23 For the wages of sin [is] death; but the gift of God [is] eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord. |
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182 | Will there be marriages in heaven? | Matt 22:30 | ebrain | 180121 | ||
If you are a Christian, then you are part of the bride of Christ, that is you will be married to Him, how then can you possibly be married to anyone else? | ||||||
183 | why did GOD allow Jephthah killed | Judg 11:36 | ebrain | 179753 | ||
What you have said I find myself in wholehearted agreement with. that, however, is not the point. I have asked you specific questions, and these you have failed to answer, I can only conclude that you are unable to do so. | ||||||
184 | What did Jesus mean? | Bible general Archive 3 | ebrain | 179752 | ||
Jesus is quoting from Psalm 41:9, and is referring to Judas who was to betray Him. | ||||||
185 | why did GOD allow Jephthah killed | Judg 11:36 | ebrain | 179744 | ||
You say "Beware of mystical and ingenious refinement; do not aim to spiritualize every passage. Real spirituality and fanciful spirituality are different things. The former is real, deep, sublime, and satisfactory, the latter is ideal, shallow, specious and delusive. "Seek the literal before the spiritual meaning." Please give me the literal meaning, and then the spiritual meaning of the Scripture passage in question., and then read my description of "Speculation", below, and the tell me if you feel that the spititual meaning I gave satisfies the all 4 points. Specualtion can be good, or bad, it can bless, or introduce error. If, Speculation is to be of any value must satisfy certain criteria. 1. It must honor the Lord our God, and cause people to praise, and glorify His Holy Name. 2. It must honor the person, and work of our Lord Jesus Christ. 3. It must be in agreement with all the other verses of Scripture that have something to say on that subject. 4. It must be of benefit to believers, and enable them to be more Christ like. If it does in fact satisfy all the above, then I think it is worth considering. |
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186 | why did GOD allow Jephthah killed | Judg 11:36 | ebrain | 179743 | ||
Subject: Jephthat's daughter. Hi Mark. Verse 39, says "he carried out his vow", which I take to mean that he did what he promised God he would do, this to me at least is confirmed in the following verse where we find the word "lament" which means "a passionate expression of grief". Tell me why are the daughters of Israel lamenting, if there was a happy ending? You use the word honor, (which word we spell honour), and which indicates "to hold in high regard". The girls in Israel would not be using this word in respect of what Jephthat did, but what his daughter allowed to happen to her, this word also means "personal integrity, renown, reputation, sense of what is right". Why is it that only girls (v 40) that do this?,,,, because they are honouring one of their own sex. Verse 39, "She knew no man", this I understand does not refer to her virginity, but that she was cutting herself off from the prospect of marriage, and bearing children. Every blessing. Edwin. |
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187 | why did GOD allow Jephthah killed | Judg 11:36 | ebrain | 179704 | ||
Thank you Mark. What is your understanding of verse 40, and why are we told this? Every blessing. Edwin. |
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188 | why did GOD allow Jephthah killed | Judg 11:36 | ebrain | 179702 | ||
It is important to read the whole passage from v 29 to v 40, in order to see the typology of this incident. Jephthah's daughter was his only child, and was therefore his "firstborn", she was also a virgin, typical of purity. The expression "two months" is mentioned three times, (in verses 37, 38, and 39). Three draws our attention to the Trinity, and two to the second person of the Trinity, ie, Jesus of whom this girl is a type, as she was prepared to lay down her life to save her father from breaking his vow to the LORD, and the consequences of disobedience. | ||||||
189 | Do Paulin 1Thessaloninas 4:14- and John | 1 Cor 15:51 | ebrain | 179483 | ||
Further to my last post, it is allways important to read Scripture verses in their context. Have a look at Rev 19:19, and you will see that the event described here cannot possibly have anything to do with 1 Thes 4:14-17. |
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190 | Do Paulin 1Thessaloninas 4:14- and John | 1 Cor 15:51 | ebrain | 179481 | ||
I do not believe that the verses you quote refer to the same event, although it is possible that others who use this forum would disagree. That which follows might be of help. NASB John 14:3 "If I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again and receive you to Myself, that where I am, there you may be also. AMPLIFIED John 14:3 And when (if) I go and make ready a place for you, I will come back again and will take you to Myself, that where I am you may be also. Question (short): Is the Raptur a real event? Question (full): Is the Rapture a real event? WHy is there so much controvery over it. Answer: Yes it is, please read John 14:2-3. also 1 st Thess 4:13-18, and 1 st Cor 15:51-58. The problem, is that some people think that the second advent is in two parts seperated in time, whilst others think that everything takes place at one moment in time. The question that I would like to ask is this. How is it possible for every eye to see the thief in the night, if there is only one event? Question (short): rapture unseen, 2nd advent seen by all Question (full): I understand the thief in the night is the rapture and the second advent in when christ returns and every eye will see him coming in the clouds on his white horse. right? Answer: Yes Subject: Is the Raptur a real event? Note: Hi Edwin, Does it actually say that every eye will see the thief? I believe this is an allegory for an unexpected event. As to Him who cometh with clouds, Hebrews 12 makes mention of the great cloud of witnesses as it refers to the Old Testament saints. The church I attend teaches that the rapture will happen before the Great Tribulation. It is separate and distinct from the rapture of the church. The rapture is the time when Jesus will be coming for His church. At His second coming, He will be coming with His church. I myself will wait in anticipation of what our Lord has in mind for His saints, and I prefer not to convince myself of a particular event on which the Scriptures are unclear. God's Blessings to you and yours, Tim Note: No there is no such verse, it is my way of drawing attention to the fact that there are two groups of verses, one group shows that the second comming will be very public, ie, "every eye will see Him". Whereas the other group of verses indicate that His Return will be the very opposite, ie, "like a theif in the night". These two sets of verses cannot possibly refer to the same event, therefore, there must be two seperate visits to earth by our Lord in respect of His second comming, one where He does not come down to the surface, but remains in the air above the ground, as He "raptures" His bride, the church, the other when He does come all the way back to the surface to carry out judgment. |
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191 | Hpw may years from Adam to Jesus | Gen 1:27 | ebrain | 179455 | ||
A rough estimate would place this at about 4000 years, but as Hank says, no one knows, and what does it matter anyway? | ||||||
192 | Did Jesus say this world was an illusion | Genesis | ebrain | 179312 | ||
As far as I am aware, there is no Scripture that indicates that Jesus said that this world is an illusion. | ||||||
193 | Corresponding books of matthew 26:36-45 | Matthew | ebrain | 179304 | ||
As far as the centre column of my NASB reference Bible is concerened, there is no Pauline connection with the Scripture passage in question. What I cannot understand is why you should ask this question? If you could give a reason, then perhaps I myself, or others on this Forum would be able to help You. |
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194 | Corresponding books of matthew 26:36-45 | Bible general Archive 3 | ebrain | 179301 | ||
As far as I am aware, there are no Scriptures that tell you how many hours Jesus prayed for, but then why would you want to know this? |
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195 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | ebrain | 179064 | ||
Greetings Steve. Let me try once more to make my position clear. At Matthew 26:53, Jesus said "Do you think that I cannot appeal to my Father" (ESV), please tell me Steve would I be right in interpreting this as "I can appeal to my Father", I am able to do it, it is not impossible for me to do this , however, although I can, I will not, as if I did, how would Scripture be fullfiled?, (verse 54). Please, Please tell me Steve, have I completely misunderstood what Jesus was saying, and if so how then should I have understood it? If Jesus were to have done what He clearly said He could do, and thereby have prevented Scripture from being fullfiled, would He have sinned?, Yes, or No. For what it is worth my understanding that Jesus could as a man have sinned, but did not do so , causes me to hold Him in much higher regard than if it were impossible for Him to have done so. In other words it is not a problem for me, but in fact causes me to rejoice, and be exceeding glad that my Saviour is such a wonderful, brave , and courageous person. Every blessing. Edwin. |
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196 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | ebrain | 179044 | ||
Steve. I have never at any time said that God could sin, I am in full agreement with you, God cannot sin. That however is not the question. What I have been dealing with is the humanity, and not the Deity of Jesus. It is written of God that He "will neither slumber nor sleep", Psalm 121:4. (ESV), Jesus went to sleep in the back of a boat. Tell me would this refer to the Divine nature of Jesus, or His human nature? When Jesus said "not my will but thine de done". He is indicating His ability to chose, are you saying that He did not have the ability to chose? Please explain to me why He said this, if He was icapable of free choice?. Would you also please respond to the other questions that I have asked in the post to which you have replied. Edwin. |
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197 | What does "remaining in Him" really mean | Mark 15:5 | ebrain | 179030 | ||
1Jo 3:9 every one who hath been begotten of God, sin he doth not, because his seed in him doth remain, and he is not able to sin, because of God he hath been begotten The above is "Young's Literal Translation", and as far as I am aware gives the correct interpretation of what John intended his readers to understand. I see no problem with this verse as I believe it to refer to the new nature that all christians have, and the new nature cannot sin, however, we all still retain the old nature as well, and that cannot do anything but sin. Paul recognized this problem, and describes it in some detail in Romans 7:14-25. His conclusion is "So then with the mind (the new nature) I myself serve the law of God, but with my flesh (the old nature) the law of sin". I trust this will be of help to you. ebrain. |
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198 | Faith | Gen 32:10 | ebrain | 179028 | ||
Hi Mae. Please read my post to NewPilgrim, as I intended it for you, but put it in the wrong place, sorry. Bless you. ebrain. |
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199 | Faith | Gen 32:10 | ebrain | 179027 | ||
Hi mae68. The best defination of "Faith", that I know of is found at Hebrews 11:6. where we are told " But without faith [it is] impossible to please [him]: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and [that] he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him." The first part of this verse presents no problem, as all people know that God really exists, even if they say they dont. The second part which reads "and [that] he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him." Is the hard bit, for it enables you to know if you really are exercising true faith, for example, do you really know that He will reward thoes who do diligently seek after Him? Is that the state of your mind, when you request something in prayer? see Mark 11:24, and 1st John 5:14, you will find that Matthew 6:8 will help you to understand Mark 11:24. May the Lord bless you, and keep you safe. ebrain. |
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200 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | ebrain | 179026 | ||
Steve. Greetings Brother. There is no need for you to apologize, you have not offended me, dismayed perhaps, frustrated possibly, but offended no. I asked you to look at my post to NewPilgrim, which you do not appear to have done, as you have not made any comment on, "not My will but Thine be done". Your problem as I see it is one that is all too common with a lot of christians, that is an inability to reconcile the Diety of our Lord Jesus, with His true humanity. Let me ask you a number of questions, but before I do so let me state that I have no problem with the fact that Jesus is God, as anyone will know who has read what I have had to say on that subject on this Forum, and as the many verses of Scripture I have quoted indicate. What follows might seem as if I am playing the Devil's Advocate. This is not in fact the case, but the verses I shall refer to could be used by his servants to undermine a believers faith. Unfortunatly this is helped along by thoes Preachers who will say "Although we are considering the humanity of Jesus, let it be clearly understood that at no time was He any less than God". This teaching plays straight into the hands of the Evil one, who will try to use it to his advantage. Jesus is refered to as "My Servant" at Isaiah 52:13, which is where one should start to read Isaiah Ch 53. Tell me how can the servant of God, also at the same time be God? Psalm 22:1. Jesus cried out "My God My God", Tell me how it is possible that He who is God could possibly address Himself as My God? only someone who is not God could say this. Hebrews 2:9. "Made lower than the angles". Hebrews 10:7. "To do your will O God". 1 Corinthinans 15:28. "Then the Son himself will also be subjected to him.....God". John 5:30. Please tell me why it is that God has to say "I can of my self do nothing". Why God has to say "As I hear I judge". who does He take advice from? Why is it that the only way in which God knows that His judgment is righteous, is because He dose not seek His own will? Why are we told at Acts 2:22, "God did through him", if it was Jesus who performed the Miracles? Phillipians 2:9. How can you give someone what they have allready got? Note see Isaiah 45:22-23, for the application of this mame. Rest assured that I have no problem with the verses I have quoted above, they do not prevent me from rejoicing in the fact that Jesus is God. Refering now to Coll 2:9. This is a verse that I especially love, and have used many times to indicate that the entire Godhead, that is all three persons suffered and died on the cross, and not just only the man Jesus. The Lord bless you Steve. Edwin. |
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