Results 221 - 240 of 516
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: ebrain Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
221 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178677 | ||
Hi Steve. I am well aware of the meaning of the Greek word which has been translated "Lust", there was no need for you to repeat it. The verse you want is 16, not 26, and it refers to the autographs, and not to copies, or translations. I have more to say in answer to your post, but later on due to time restraints. The Lord bless you. Edwin. |
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222 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178661 | ||
Sorry for the error, the last but one line should have read. If I can be of any help please ask. ebrain. |
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223 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178660 | ||
Dear John. You said You're the one who implied that Jesus used a word that did not really mean what He had in mind. I have never at any time as far as I am aware either said, or implied that Jesus used an incorrect word. Such a suggestion would be to insult Him, and rest assured, I have no intention of doing that. What is important here is not so much the Greek translation of what Jesus said, but rather His Teaching, what He wished to convey. It is clear to me that He is saying that from the Divine point of view, thinking about it is just the same as actually doing it. The word translated "Lust", used in this verse indicates what is in a man's mind when he is looking at a woman, Which state of mind God judges as being the same as if the man had in fact commited adultery with her. It makes no difference how you interpret the Greek word used, it's meaning in this passage of Scripture is exactly as I have indicated above. To suggest that Jesus did not use the right word, is an insult to Him. To say that the Holy Spirit translated the word used by Jesus with the wrong Greek word, is to insult the Holy Spirit. If as you say the Greek NT, is inspired by the Holy Soirit, then please explain the following At Matthew 26:64 Jesus's words are given as "You have said so", at Mark 14:64, as "I AM", and at Luke 22:70, as "You say that I am". Has the Holy Spirt made a mistake, or is it human error ?. At Matthew 20:20, it is the Mother that asks, whereas at Mark 10:35, it is the Sons that ask. Al four Gospels have different versions of , "the inscription above His head", see Matt27:37. Mark 15:26, Luke 23:38, and John 19:19. Your last line reads. Saying that it doesn't matter what the word means, it only matters what Jesus had in mind doesn't even make any sense. I experience no difficulty in understanding what Jesus is saying (had in mind), in the verse in question, I am sorry that it does not make sense to you. If I can be of nay help, then please ask. May the Lord bless you, and keep you safe. ebrain. |
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224 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178656 | ||
Hi Mark. Thank you for your post. What is important here is not so much the Greek translation of what Jesus said, but rather His Teaching, what He wished to convey. It is clear to me that He is saying that from the Divine point of view, thinking about it is just the same as actually doing it. The word translated "Lust", used in this verse indicates what is in a man's mind when he is looking at a woman, Which state of mind God judges as being the same as if the man had in fact commited adultery with her. It makes no difference how you interpret the Greek word used, it's meaning in this passage of Scripture is exactly as I have indicated above. To suggest that Jesus did not use the right word, is an insult to Him. To say that the Holy Spirit translated the word used by Jesus with the wrong Greek word, is to insult the Holy Spirit. If as you say the Greek NT, is inspired by the Holy Soirit, then please explain the following At Matthew 26:64 Jesus's words are given as "You have said so", at Mark 14:64, as "I AM", and at Luke 22:70, as "You say that I am". Has the Holy Spirt made a mistake, or is it human error ?. At Matthew 20:20, it is the Mother that asks, whereas at Mark 10:35, it is the Sons that ask. Al four Gospels have different versions of , "the inscription above His head", see Matt27:37. Mark 15:26, Luke 23:38, and John 19:19. Every blessing. Edwin. |
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225 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178629 | ||
How do you know what word Jesus used, as He was more than likely speaking in Aramic, or Hebrew. The Greek translation was only used for the publication of the NT, as at that time more people spoke Greek than any other language. To say that Jesus used a word that did not really mean what He had in mind is an insult to Him, and offensive to me. ebrain. |
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226 | Free will and predestination co-exist? | Rom 8:29 | ebrain | 178624 | ||
Ztheberean, The post that you have sent to Mark is both insensitive, and judgmental, I find myself in complete agreement with the sentiments expressed by Steve, Jeff, and BradK. Mark is a long standing, and respected member of this web site. You owe him an apology. Edwin Brain. |
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227 | Free will and predestination co-exist? | Rom 8:29 | ebrain | 178618 | ||
It seems to me that there was a time when we were dead in sins, before we were in Christ, then, when we became "in Christ", this involved re-birth, and we became a new creation. This is my understanding. What is your understanding of these verses? Love in Christ, Mark Hi Mark. Thank you for your kind words, it's great to have fellowship with you once more. but please dear brother don't put the cart before the horse. We were not dead in sins, before we were in Christ, but we were in Christ before we were dead in sins. You and I and all other people are inside the "Space Time Continuum", a creation of the Lord superimposed upon Eternity. Eternity is timelessness, and it is in Eternity that God the Father placed us in His Son before the beginning of time, however, we do not come into existance untill after time was created (but He knew that we would exist). We were dead in sins at the point of our conception onwards, (see Psalm 51:5), and remained so untill we were saved, after which we discover that we have been "in Christ" from before the foundation of the earth Now do you get it. Bless you brother. Edwin. |
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228 | Free will and predestination co-exist? | Rom 8:29 | ebrain | 178596 | ||
So let me ask you - when do we become "in Christ"? Love in Christ, Mark Mark, You have answered your own question in your post from which the above extract is taken. At verse 4, the Lord tells us that, "He chose us in Him from before the foundation of the world". I have no difficulty in taking this to mean that we were put "in Christ" before the world was. Every blessing. Edwin. |
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229 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178550 | ||
Steve. Please read my post to Mark, four above yours sent at 7.56 am to-day. You will see that I don't need a Greek dictionary/lexicon, only common sense. Now, please tell me that my post to Mark is wrong, and why. ebrain. |
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230 | Jesus' Deity? | Rom 10:9 | ebrain | 178544 | ||
John 10:17-18. Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again. No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father. Note. Only God can raise Himsef back from the dead. ebrain. |
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231 | Free will and predestination co-exist? | Rom 8:29 | ebrain | 178523 | ||
Sorry Mark. I left this one out. Ephesians 1:4. According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love: Now please tell me how this verse, and the two in my previous post cannot refer to those predestined for salvation ?. Regards. Edwin. (ebrain |
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232 | Free will and predestination co-exist? | Rom 8:29 | ebrain | 178521 | ||
Hi Mark. Regarding the last line of your post, where you say, "Is there a Scripture that says we are predestined to salvation?" Love in Christ, Mark Well what about these two Ephesians Ch 1 vs 5 and 11. "In whom also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will" "Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will" |
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233 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178519 | ||
Mat 5:28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart. Hi Mark. What really matters is what did Jesue have in mind when He used the word "Lust", it is clear from Matthew 5:28, above that He ment that state of mind in a man which leads to "Adultery" The question therefore, is not what the Greek word might, or might not mean, but what Jesus intended it to mean. Bless you brother. ebrain. |
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234 | Free will and predestination co-exist? | Rom 8:29 | ebrain | 178518 | ||
Hi Ztheberean. Thank you for your post. I am still awaiting your answer to my question on Enoch, and Job, ie, did these men exercise free will, or were they without free will ? Phil 2:13 is addressed to christians who have allready exercised their free will to become believers in the first place. This verse must be read in the context of vs 5-13, and especially in respect of v12, now ask your self how can "Work out your own Salvation" possibly be addressed to persons who are allready saved ?. It can only refer to christians who are trying to live the christian life, and please God in the energy of the flesh, and this never works. They are to "work out", how it is to be done, and Paul tells them that the only way in which they can do this is as a result of God who resides in them revealing His will, and then it is He it is who does His will, but only if you allow Him to do so as Jesus did as described from verses 5 to 11, and is why v 12 starts with "Therefore". ebrain. |
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235 | Free will and predestination co-exist? | Rom 8:29 | ebrain | 178517 | ||
Dear Mark. Please explain how it is possible to be conformed to the image of His Son, without first being saved ? Bless you brother. ebrain |
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236 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178516 | ||
Hi Joan. This definition can be found in the COLLINS GEM ENGLISH DICTIONARY. Hope this helps. every blessing. ebrain. |
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237 | Free will and predestination co-exist? | Rom 8:29 | ebrain | 178469 | ||
You say that we do not have free will, yet at Gen 5:24, we are told that "Enoch walked with God; and he was not for God took him". Please tell me, do you think that Enoch walked with God of his own free will, on not?. If he did not have a free will as you maintain, then this verse of Scripture is pointless. At Job 1:8, the LORD said that Job was "a blameless and upright man, one who fears God and shuns evil". What is the point of the LORD saying this if Job did not have a free will ?. ebrain. |
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238 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178468 | ||
The word "Lust" means "strong desire for sexual gratification" ebrain. |
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239 | levals of rewards in heaven? | 1 Cor 3:14 | ebrain | 178449 | ||
Yes there are, but these rewards are in fact delegated responsibilities, as indicated by our Lord Jesus at Luke 19:17-19, but read the whole passage from vs 11 to 27. ebrain. |
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240 | Books called The Law and The Profits | OT general | ebrain | 178387 | ||
The whole of the Jewish Boble is refered to as the "Tanakh". The word Tanach is actually a Hebrew Acronym, that refers to Torah,Neviim, and Khetuvim. The word Torah, which literally means "teaching" refers to the Five Books of Moses. The word Neviim is the Hebrew word for "Prophets", The word "Khetuvim" is the Hebrew for the word "Writings". When you take the first letters of each word together, you get the word "TaNaKH", (The extra vowels (the two "a"s) are there simply to give the word some sounding). Torah, Neviim, and Ketuvim, are really considered sections. Amongst each section are the books allready refered to. ebrain. |
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