Results 201 - 220 of 516
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: ebrain Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
201 | Did Jesus have his own power on earth? | Phil 2:5 | ebrain | 178971 | ||
Hi NewPilgrim. I think reading Philippians 2:5-11, will be of help here. The Lord bless you. ebrain. |
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202 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | ebrain | 178969 | ||
Hi Steve. You said. "I think we can agree that He had the ability to call on the Father", What is the point of His saying this, if as you maintain He was incapable of doing it?, it just does not make sense. If He said He could do this, which He did in fact say, but it was impossible for Him to do so, then you are calling Him a lier, and as I have said in my post to "NewPilgrim" on this topic, (which post I suggest you read), "my Jesus is not a lier". Please tell me what Coll 2:9 has to do with this? "in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily", so what, how does this relate to what Jesus said at Matthew 26:53?. |
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203 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | ebrain | 178967 | ||
Hi NewPilgrim. Welcome to this forum, it;s great to have you on board. I find myself in complete and total agreement with all that you have said, you must have a brilliant teacher. Might I add in support of what you have written, our Lord's words when He said "not my will but thine be done". This statement of His only makes sense if it were possible for Him to go against His Fathers will, if as others have said "Jesus could not do this", then they are calling Him a lier, and my Jesus is not a lier. I look forward to further input from you. Every blessing. ebrain. |
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204 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | ebrain | 178942 | ||
Jesus did not sin, but I do believe that it was possible for Him to do so. If He had done what the verse below says, then He would have sinned, but He did not do so. Mat 26:53 “Do you think that I cannot appeal to my Father, and he will at once send me more than twelve legions of angels? ebrain. |
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205 | Were Noah's sons triplets or born sepera | Gen 5:32 | ebrain | 178930 | ||
Hi rckeel. It might be of interese for you to know that the three persons saved as described in Acts Chapters 8,9,and10, are desendants of Ham Ch 8, Shem Ch 9. and Japheth in Ch 10. ebrain. |
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206 | doesn't god know all there is to know? | Ps 48:10 | ebrain | 178925 | ||
Hi rckeel. God, trying a person, or putting him to the test is for the man's benifit, and not for God's benifit who knows the outcome anyway 2 Cron 32:31. Howbeit in [the business of] the ambassadors of the princes of Babylon, who sent unto him to enquire of the wonder that was [done] in the land, God left him, to try him, that he might know all [that was] in his heart Genesis 22:12. And he said, Lay not thine hand upon the lad, neither do thou any thing unto him: for now I know that thou fearest God, seeing thou hast not withheld thy son, thine only [son] from me. For whose benifit was this I wonder? Hebrews 4:12. For the word of God [is] quick, and powerful, and sharper than any twoedged sword, piercing even to the dividing asunder of soul and spirit, and of the joints and marrow, and [is] a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart Reading the Word of God reveals to me, the thoughts and intents of my heart, God knows allready, but when I read His book, then I discover my true motive. 1 Cor 10:13. There hath no temptation taken you but such as is common to man: but God [is] faithful, who will not suffer you to be tempted above that ye are able; but will with the temptation also make a way to escape, that ye may be able to bear [it]. Why is He putting you to the test, His benifit, or yours. May the Lord bless you, and keep you safe. Edwin. |
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207 | Evidence for Aramaic? | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178913 | ||
Hi Tim. Please refer to my post to Mark of 7.20am to-day 10/27/06. |
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208 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178912 | ||
Hi Mark. In short yes I do, but it is not that simple. Before I was converted I had read "Pilgrims Progress" but could not make any sense out of it, however, after conversion it was a completely different book, but it was the same book, reading it now was like reading Scripture, but was it "Inspired" in the same way that Scripture is? I agree that Paul was a well educated man, and would most likely speak fluant Greek, and in all probability would have dictated in Greek to the Scribe who took down Paul's words, but what Paul had to say was not allways given to him by the Holy Spirit. Now what about the other Gospel writers, the Galilean Fishermen, for example, do you think that like Paul they also were fluant in Greek ?, or would it be more than likely that they would either have written, or dictated in the language with which they were most familiar, the language they spoke every day, the language in which Jesus preached. Yours because I am His. Edwin. |
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209 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178866 | ||
Hi Mark. Here is a response to a part of your post, I hope to deal with the rest another time. In reply let me advise you that sometimes my motive in submitting posts is not so much to express a point of view, or explain a doctrine, as to provoke a discussion. I have no problem with the three extracts above, Matthew , Mark, and Luke are all saying the same thing, in that Jesus is saying that He is indeed the Messiah. He could have said "I AM", as Mark indicates, but then we would have missed the real meaning of His response which the other Gospel writers reveal. In other words, what He is telling them is "You know very well who I am, you know that I am the Christ, I know exactly what you have said in private behind closed doors, which is why my reply was spoken in the past tense, "It is as you have said". The Lord bless you. Edwin. |
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210 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178861 | ||
Hi Jeff. In your post of 2.06pm 10/24/06, you quote me as saying "It will not be the Holy Spirit who will ask you to drink deadly poison" You then go on to ask me "Do you belive that Mark 16:18 is telling Christians to drink deadly poison?" Please explain why you are asking me a question to which you have allready given my answer? Edwin. |
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211 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178829 | ||
Hi Jeff. Below is an extract from one of yours. "You wrote: "If as you say the Greek NT, is inspired by the Holy Soirit, then please explain the following At Matthew 26:64 Jesus's words are given as "You have said so", at Mark 14:64, as "I AM", and at Luke 22:70, as "You say that I am". Has the Holy Spirt made a mistake, or is it human error ?." Your questions stops short implying that the answer is one or the other; that is, human error or the Holy Spirit making a mistake. Now I know enough about you from the forum to know that you don't believe the Holy Spirit makes mistakes. So the only obvious conclusion is that you are requiring Mark to agree that there are mistakes and/or contradictions between the gospel records, or not answer the question. This is the tactic observed by secular writers and speakers who attempt to discredit Christianity." In reply let me advise you that sometimes my motive in submitting posts is not so much to express a point of view, or explain a doctrine, as to provoke a discussion. I have no problem with the three extracts above, Matthew , Mark, and Luke are all saying the same thing, in that Jesus is saying that He is indeed the Messiah. He could have said "I AM", as Mark indicates, but then we would have missed the real meaning of His response which the other Gospel writers reveal. In other words, what He is telling them is "You know very well who I am, you know that I am the Christ, I know exactly what you have said in private behind closed doors, which is why my reply was spoken in the past tense, "It is as you have said". That's all for now, more later. Bless you brother Jeff. Edwin. |
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212 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178816 | ||
Hi KumKum. Leviticus 20:10. And the man that committeth adultery with [another] man's wife, [even he] that committeth adultery with his neighbour's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death. There is no way in which Jesus could possibly be refering to a man's own wife, as it is only possible to commit Adultry with another man's wife see above. Regarding the last line of your post, please don't be upset, refer to the following Scripture verses. 1Cr 7:7 I wish that all were as I myself am. But each has his own gift from God, one of one kind and one of another. 1Cr 7:8 To the unmarried and the widows I say that it is good for them to remain single as I am. 1Cr 7:9 But if they cannot exercise self-control, they should marry. For it is better to marry than to be aflame with passion. Paul's advice to you is, "If you lust after your friend, then marry her" To "Lust" is here described as "to be aflame with passion". I hope that this is of help to you. ebrain. |
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213 | Evidence for Aramaic? | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178792 | ||
Hi Tim. Please refer to the answer that I gave to Steve at 1.26 pm to-day 10/24/06. In His service. Edwin. |
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214 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178780 | ||
Hi Steve. You say. "The only manuscript I know of that has been disputed concerning original language is Matthew. Your position is well outside the norm. I cannot understand why you would consider Paul's epistles to be written in Aramaic. The receiving churches and individuals would have been Gentile or mixed. Greek would have been the normal method of communication in order to be easily understood." My reply. Of all the writers of the NT, the only one who was not a native Jew was Luke, his native language would have been Greek. The others would have written in their own language Aramaic. As this language was only spoken by a small minority of the world's population at that time, it was most important that it be translated into Greek for publication, so that a majority of people would be able te read it, or have it read to them. New Testament Greek is not the same as the classical Greek of Plato and Homer, nor it is the same as "market place Greek" spoken by most people at that time. I will give you three examples, the conjunction "and", is used with far more ferequency that is the case in Greek, the expression "truly truly" is not normal in Greek. "Jesus answered and said", is not normal in Greek. it would have been, Jesus said, or He said, or He answered, or He said. You can see this even in the English translation never mind going back to the Greek. Anyone reading the Greek NT, would be able to see straight away that it was a very literal word for word translaion of onother language, in this case the Aramic autographs where this type of usage is the norm. Edwin. |
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215 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178776 | ||
Hi Mark. You said. "Concerning Mark 16:9-20, were you aware that one of these “early manuscripts”, the Vaticanus, while it does not contain this passage, does leave a blank space where that text would fit? But this really isn’t a problem either way I look at it. Its addition doesn’t conflict with any other teachings, and it omission doesn’t remove anything that’s not taught elsewhere. And nowhere, including in Mark 16, are we told that we should test the Lord, with the one exception that the Jews under the Old Covenant were to prove God concerning His promised blessing in their tithes - at least to the best of my knowledge! :-)". My answer to this is to be found in my reply to Hank posted at 7.25 am to-day 10/24/06. The other matters to which you refer will be delt with later on. Every blessing. Edwin. |
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216 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178768 | ||
Thank you Jeff. Please refer to my reply to Hank of 7.25 am to-day 10/24/06. Every blessing. Edwin. |
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217 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178767 | ||
Hi Mark. You said. "Do you believe that the Greek New Testament was inspired by the Holy Spirit, and as such, is an accurate record of what happened, and what Jesus said, and taught?" With the possible exception of Luke and Acts, I believe that all the other NT, autographs were, as I have allready said written in Aramaic, and that the Greek version of these is a translation. I have several versions of the Bible, some of them I consider to be better than others in rendering into English what God wrote in Hebrew, and Aramic, however, I would without hesitation say that all the different versions that I posses including the Watchtower one to be the Word of God. I have been told that there are thoes who have been converted as a result of what the Holy Spirit has said to them when that person has only had the JW version, or should I say perversion to hand. Our God is in no way limited, and is able to use any version in any language of His Word to bring about Salvation. I feel that this topic has just about been exausted, If you wish to discuss it any further, then I suggest you let me have your phone number, as I am able to phone you 24/7 at no cost for up to 70 mins. The Lord bless you Steve. Edwin. |
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218 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178766 | ||
Hi Hank. You say. "Of course, no one in the New Testament is reported to have handled snakes". Might I with respect draw your attention to Acts 28:3-5, I will refer to these verses again when dealing with the last part of Mark's Gospel. Thank you for what you have said about "Snake Handling", I have heard of this before in respect of a group of pentecostals operating in the area of the Catskill Mountains. I believe that verses 9 through 20 of Mark Ch 16 are human additions, but allowed to be there with Divine permission in order to give believers yet another opportunity to exercise that faith without wich it is impossible to please God, see Hebrews 11:6. Let me explain. False teaching is allways introduced, and disguised by being liberally surrounded with plenty of good sound teaching, I have no problem whatsoever with eleven of these twelve verses, but v 18, is where the "Deadly Poison" is introduced, and see with what subtly the first part of this verse is used to introduce you to it, some readers will say, "Why yes, Paul handled a deadly snake, and it did not do him any harm, therefore the rest of this verse must be ok. It has been said that the Holy Spirit will not tempt people to put God to the test, and this is of course true. It was not the Holy Spirit that tempted Jesus, but the Devil, although it was in fact the Holy Spirit who wrote Psalm 91:11-12. It will not be the Holy Spirit who will ask you to drink deadly poison, but a servant of the enemy of God, who will say something like "If you really are a christian, then do this for it is written, ect, ect". Need I say any more, no doubt I will. but for the time being this will have to do. ebrain. |
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219 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178720 | ||
Hi Mark. Thank you for your post, asking if I believe that the Greek New Testament was inspired by the Holy Spirit. I believe that there is what I would describe as both Primary, and Secondary Inspiration. Primary Inspiration is responsible for the "Autographs", only, and not the copies, or the translations, and that Secondary Inspiration is applicablt to all three groups. As the autographs are no longer available for study, secondary only needs to be considered here. In my lifetime more that fifty different versions of the English Bible have been published, although a number were only of the NT. Non of these are exact word for word translations, as we do not have the originals, and in any case they are in a different language, I am not however saying that the translators did not have Divine assistance in producing their version. Any Reference Bible, will have marginal notes, and footnotes indicating such things as "Meaning of word unknown", or "The earliest manuscripts do not include", or "can also be translated as", ect, ect. Take for example Mark 16:9-20, which is considered as a later addition. Now have a look at v18, and tell me do you realy think that the Holy Spirit wants christians to put the Lord to the test by drinking deadly poison in order to prove that thay are the real thing, when Jesus who was asked the same question, said "Thou shall not put the Lord thy God to the test".? Now let me explain what I mean by "Secondary Inspiration". The Holy Scriptures whether autographs, copies, or translations are like no other writings in the universe, they are Supernatural, spiritual. and spiritual things have to be spiritually dscerened, the natural man is just not able to understand The Bible, and this is where the Holy Spirit comes in, He causes the man to be "Born again", then the man will say, "now I understand it, now it all makes sense, it's a different book alltogether", oh no it is not, the book is just the same as it has allways been, it's you the reader who havs been changed, and thereby been enabled to understand it. I may say something more on this subject at a later date, but for the time being, I hope the above will help to answer your question. The Lord bless you brother. Edwin. |
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220 | Free will and predestination co-exist? | Rom 8:29 | ebrain | 178690 | ||
Hi Z. I refer to the extract below from your post of 12.18 pm on 10/20/06. There is no doubt in my mind that Mark is in Christ Jesus, my Lord, but there is doubt that he is of God in Christ. According to the doctrine of Christ, we need to be in both the Father and the Son (2Jn. 1:9). Once more, we see the danger of quoting Scripture verses out of context, verse 9 has to be read within the context of vs 7 through 11. which clearly indicate that the person refered to in v 9 is a deceiver and the antichrist. I do not believe that you deliberately intended to describe Mark in this way.. I would therefore ask that you be more carefull in future. Although you say " I an sorry for any offense",,, and "Please forgive my rudeness", this in only addressed to the four of us, and not to Mark as it should be, and now more so in light of what you have said above. ebrain. |
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