Results 121 - 140 of 4934
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Results from: Notes Author: Morant61 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
121 | i need help with a question | John | Morant61 | 223943 | ||
Greetings! You may be looking for: Joh 4:21 Jesus declared, "Believe me, woman, a time is coming when you will worship the Father neither on this mountain nor in Jerusalem. I can't think of any other verse that sounds like what you are saying. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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122 | Did John really baptise Jesus?? | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 223533 | ||
Greetings Lightedsteps! I hope you don't mind if I jump in on this discussion. I understand the verses you are appealing to, and what you are trying to say about the reality of Christ's humanity. However, you are making a fundamental mistake in assuming that real temptation necessitates a fallen, depraved, human nature. Consider the situation of Adam and Eve. Were they created with a fallen, depraved, human nature? Of course, they were not! Yet, they were tempted by Satan. The fact that temptation was a reality for Christ does not mean that he had a fallen, depraved, human nature. This fallen, depraved, human nature is described in Scripture. Psa 51:5 Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me. Rom 3:10 As it is written: "There is no one righteous, not even one; Rom 3:23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, None of these passages describe the human nature that Christ possessed. He was without sin in any form - Heb 4:15 For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are--yet was without sin. So, Jesus was tempted, but He had no sin. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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123 | are there multiple infillings? | Acts | Morant61 | 223401 | ||
Greetings Makarios! Excellent post my friend! Like you, I always saw the Baptism as a one time event at conversion, while fillings could be repeated. It is good to hear from you! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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124 | are there multiple infillings? | Acts | Morant61 | 223382 | ||
Greetings Lightedsteps! :-) Good question! My defense would be that I wasn't formulating a doctrine, but simply listing what happened. While we don't want to base doctrine upon narrative, the narratives are still Scripture. So, if Scripture specifically says that an individual was filled more than once, then they certainly were filled more than once. What does that mean? I'm not sure! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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125 | Is there always the evidence of tongues? | Acts | Morant61 | 223355 | ||
Greetings Vnct Blzn! How does one interpret? That is a complex subject. :-) However, the best rule of thumb is to take Scripture in the way in which it was intended. A story is not a command. A command is not a poem. A poem is not instruction, ect.... That is what I meant about Acts being narrative. Someone in a narrative doing something, even if it occurs over and over again, is not a command for us to do the same thing. What they did may or may not be correct, unless Scripture tells us specifically. Interpretation itself is really not that difficult, or at least not as difficult as many people make it out to be. :-) The reason we end up with so many different interpretations is because so many ignore the basic rules of grammar. If you are interested in a more detailed examination of this topic, I would recommend the book, 'How to Read the Bible for All it is Worth' by Gordon Fee. It is an excellent handling of the topic, but very readable. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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126 | Is there always the evidence of tongues? | Acts | Morant61 | 223352 | ||
Greetings Vnct Blzn! Navigation can be difficult at times. :-) I am glad my post was helpful. From experience, I can tell you how your friend will most likely respond. He will probably say that tongues are implied, even though they are not mentioned. The strongest point though is not whether or not tongues are mentioned, but the fact that no 'teaching' portion of Scripture states that everyone who is filled with Spirit will speak in tongues. Even if every instance of a narrative mentioned tongues, one could not build a doctrine based upon a narrative alone. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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127 | The Spirit and the Seventy | John 16:7 | Morant61 | 223327 | ||
Greetings Ariel Levin! Please, just call me 'Tim'! :-) I feel old enough as it is! ;-) I don't always agree with Barnes, but he usually makes some good observations. I assume that you are talking about the 70 in Numbers 11. If so, I don't so any conflict with Barnes' statements. The 70 received a portion of the Spirit from Moses to accomplish a specific task. Nothing is said in Scripture about whether or not the Spirit stayed on them at all times or only when they were performing that specific task. Neither is anything said about how long the Spirit stayed upon them. Either way, the coming of the Holy Spirit in the New Testament is vastly different in both extent and nature. Christ promised us that the Holy Spirit would indwell all believers, forever. Great question my friend! Let us know if you find any more information about it. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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128 | Is James 4:3 completely true? | James 4:3 | Morant61 | 223279 | ||
Greetings Biblenovice! You wrote: "Notice that there was no mention of "prayers" in either James 4:3, nor in my original question, but only of "asking."" But, in your original post, you wrote: "Does anyone have any idea why my prayers for adequate heat in that car were not answered, or can anyone describe how I (or any member of my family) could possibly consume adequate heat and a working defroster upon our collective lusts?" So, you did mention prayer. :-) Instead of Luke 6:38, I believe that you are referring to Phil. 4:19, but even that verse makes no mention of 'asking' or of 'prayer'. Is there really a difference between 'asking' and 'praying'? The word for 'ask' is used in various contexts relating to prayer. In Matthew 6, verses 7 and 9 refer to 'prayer', while verse 8 refers to 'asking'. Clearly, 'asking' is considered prayer. Matt. 21:22 says that we will receive whatever we ask for in prayer. See also Mark 11:24. Col. 1:9 mentions both words together. Prayer is asking God for something! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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129 | Heaven or hell predetermined? | Eph 1:11 | Morant61 | 223156 | ||
Greetings All! This topic has been much discussed in the past and it usually led to bad things. :-( It might be better to simply drop the topic and search the archives. There are several differing views of what 'election' and 'predestination'. Both sides believe that 'their' view is the correct one. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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130 | Imprecatory Prayers in New Testament | NT general | Morant61 | 222288 | ||
Greetings Doc! I had thought about the disciples comment to Jesus, but the question specifically asked for imprecatory prayers. Their comment was a question, not a prayer. There are other examples of curses, like Paul blinding a man. But, I can't think of any prayers off of the top of my head. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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131 | creation | Gen 2:2 | Morant61 | 220923 | ||
Greetings Rick! No history lists every second of event, from every possible perspective, listing every single detail. :-) But, they are historical nonetheless! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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132 | do u tithe on unemployment checks | 1 Tim 1:8 | Morant61 | 220695 | ||
Greetings Val! In our congregation, I teach that tithing is not a required for Christians. However, I also add the following. 1) Giving is required of Christians. 2) Tithing is a good way to give consistently. 3) Many denominations list tithing as a expectation of it's member's. So, while not required, it is certainly an excellent practice to develop. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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133 | What day are we COMMANDED to gather? | Heb 10:25 | Morant61 | 220506 | ||
Greetings Charis! I second Azure's greeting. It has been a long time my friend. It is good to hear from you. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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134 | Greek of Luke 1.36: hosei/about | Luke 1:56 | Morant61 | 219570 | ||
Greetings Rick! The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia spells out the differences between marriage and betrothal. During betrothal, the couple: - Did not live together - Did not engage in sexual relations - Were usually betrothed for periods of months to even years, though one year was probably normal. The one big difference between our engagement practices and their betrothal practice is that it required a divorce to break a betrothal. But, a couple was not considered 'married' until the betrothal period was over, the husband had brought his bride home with him, and the union was consummated sexually. I had to read all of this recently as I was preparing my Advent series. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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135 | Faith a gift? | Eph 2:8 | Morant61 | 219431 | ||
Greetings Lionstrong! Actually, the Amplified is more accurate in this instance. In Greek, a pronoun (in this case 'it') must agree in both number and gender with it's antecedent. 'Faith' and 'Grace' are both feminine nouns, while the pronoun 'it' is neuter in gender. Thus, 'it' cannot refer to either grace or faith. To what then does 'it' refer? Most Greek scholars argue that there is no clear antecedent because 'it' refers to the entire process of salvation by faith through grace. Have a great Thanksgiving my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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136 | "a" or "the"? | Dan 7:13 | Morant61 | 219120 | ||
Greetings CDBJ! You have the right rule, but the wrong language. :-) Granville Sharp's rule applies to Greek, not Hebrew. ;-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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137 | the work of binding and sealing | Is 8:16 | Morant61 | 218861 | ||
Greetings losafollower! That is an interesting verse. Here is a comment on this verse that might be helpful to you. "Isa 8:16 - The words that follow in Isa_8:16, “Bind up the testimony, seal the lesson in my disciples,” appear at first sight to be a command of God to the prophet, according to such parallel passages as Dan_12:4, Dan_12:9; Rev_22:10, cf., Dan_8:26; but with this explanation it is impossible to do justice to the words “in my disciples” (b'ilmmudai). The explanation given by Rosenmüller, Knobel, and others, viz., “by bringing in men divinely instructed” (adhibitis viris piis et sapientibus), is grammatically inadmissible. Consequently I agree with Vitringa, Drechsler, and others, in regarding Isa_8:16 as the prophet's own prayer to Jehovah. We tie together...what we wish to keep from getting separated and lost; we seal (Chatam) what is to be kept secret, and only opened by a person duly qualified. And so the prophet here prays that Jehovah would take his testimony with regard to the future, and his instruction, which was designed to prepare for this future - that testimony and thorah which the great mass in their hardness did not understand, and in their self-hardening despised - and lay them up well secured and well preserved, as if by band and seal, in the hearts of those who received the prophet's words with believing obedience (limmud, as in Isa_50:4; Isa_54:13). For it would be all over with Israel, unless a community of believers should be preserved, and all over with this community, if the word of God, which was the ground of their life, should be allowed to slip from their hearts. We have here an announcement of the grand idea, which the second part of the book of Isaiah carries out in the grandest style. It is very evident that it is the prophet himself who is speaking here, as we may see from Isa_8:17, where he continues to speak in the first person, though he does not begin with (hebrew word not included)." From Keil and Delitzsch Commentary on the Old Testament. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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138 | no more animal sacrifice | Heb 8:13 | Morant61 | 218723 | ||
Greetings Yen! I just got home from work, so I will have to be brief my friend! 1) I wasn't trying to have it both ways. The old system never saved a single person. That is the whole point that Hebrews is making. If it had, there would be no need for the New Covenant. Israel was commanded to sacrifice, but those sacrifices never saved them. Hebrews 11 indicates that those who were saved, were saved by their faith, just as those who are saved in the New Testament are also saved by faith - in Jesus. Well, I am headed for bed! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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139 | no more animal sacrifice | Heb 8:13 | Morant61 | 218698 | ||
Greetings YenlsaRap! Thanks for your response my friend! You stated that forgiveness of sins and salvation are not synonymous, but according to Eph. 1:7, they are synonymous: Ephesians 1:7 In him we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, in accordance with the riches of God's grace Col. 1:14 says the same thing, while Luke 1:77 also connects salvation and forgiveness of sins. All through Acts, the same connection is made. If one is saved, his sins are forgiven. But, even if you still believe there is a difference between the two, Heb. 10:18 specifically says: Hebrews 10:18 And where these have been forgiven, there is no longer any sacrifice for sin. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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140 | Translation/Study of Jude | Jude | Morant61 | 218657 | ||
Greetings Fallen4shell! Keep digging my friend! We have so much information available that anyone can benefit from the Greek and Hebrew texts. If you want to do some more research, might I suggest looking up 'postpositive Greek conjunctions'. You should find a wealth of information. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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