Results 101 - 120 of 262
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Results from: Notes Author: ebrain Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
101 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178661 | ||
Sorry for the error, the last but one line should have read. If I can be of any help please ask. ebrain. |
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102 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178677 | ||
Hi Steve. I am well aware of the meaning of the Greek word which has been translated "Lust", there was no need for you to repeat it. The verse you want is 16, not 26, and it refers to the autographs, and not to copies, or translations. I have more to say in answer to your post, but later on due to time restraints. The Lord bless you. Edwin. |
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103 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178720 | ||
Hi Mark. Thank you for your post, asking if I believe that the Greek New Testament was inspired by the Holy Spirit. I believe that there is what I would describe as both Primary, and Secondary Inspiration. Primary Inspiration is responsible for the "Autographs", only, and not the copies, or the translations, and that Secondary Inspiration is applicablt to all three groups. As the autographs are no longer available for study, secondary only needs to be considered here. In my lifetime more that fifty different versions of the English Bible have been published, although a number were only of the NT. Non of these are exact word for word translations, as we do not have the originals, and in any case they are in a different language, I am not however saying that the translators did not have Divine assistance in producing their version. Any Reference Bible, will have marginal notes, and footnotes indicating such things as "Meaning of word unknown", or "The earliest manuscripts do not include", or "can also be translated as", ect, ect. Take for example Mark 16:9-20, which is considered as a later addition. Now have a look at v18, and tell me do you realy think that the Holy Spirit wants christians to put the Lord to the test by drinking deadly poison in order to prove that thay are the real thing, when Jesus who was asked the same question, said "Thou shall not put the Lord thy God to the test".? Now let me explain what I mean by "Secondary Inspiration". The Holy Scriptures whether autographs, copies, or translations are like no other writings in the universe, they are Supernatural, spiritual. and spiritual things have to be spiritually dscerened, the natural man is just not able to understand The Bible, and this is where the Holy Spirit comes in, He causes the man to be "Born again", then the man will say, "now I understand it, now it all makes sense, it's a different book alltogether", oh no it is not, the book is just the same as it has allways been, it's you the reader who havs been changed, and thereby been enabled to understand it. I may say something more on this subject at a later date, but for the time being, I hope the above will help to answer your question. The Lord bless you brother. Edwin. |
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104 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178766 | ||
Hi Hank. You say. "Of course, no one in the New Testament is reported to have handled snakes". Might I with respect draw your attention to Acts 28:3-5, I will refer to these verses again when dealing with the last part of Mark's Gospel. Thank you for what you have said about "Snake Handling", I have heard of this before in respect of a group of pentecostals operating in the area of the Catskill Mountains. I believe that verses 9 through 20 of Mark Ch 16 are human additions, but allowed to be there with Divine permission in order to give believers yet another opportunity to exercise that faith without wich it is impossible to please God, see Hebrews 11:6. Let me explain. False teaching is allways introduced, and disguised by being liberally surrounded with plenty of good sound teaching, I have no problem whatsoever with eleven of these twelve verses, but v 18, is where the "Deadly Poison" is introduced, and see with what subtly the first part of this verse is used to introduce you to it, some readers will say, "Why yes, Paul handled a deadly snake, and it did not do him any harm, therefore the rest of this verse must be ok. It has been said that the Holy Spirit will not tempt people to put God to the test, and this is of course true. It was not the Holy Spirit that tempted Jesus, but the Devil, although it was in fact the Holy Spirit who wrote Psalm 91:11-12. It will not be the Holy Spirit who will ask you to drink deadly poison, but a servant of the enemy of God, who will say something like "If you really are a christian, then do this for it is written, ect, ect". Need I say any more, no doubt I will. but for the time being this will have to do. ebrain. |
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105 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178767 | ||
Hi Mark. You said. "Do you believe that the Greek New Testament was inspired by the Holy Spirit, and as such, is an accurate record of what happened, and what Jesus said, and taught?" With the possible exception of Luke and Acts, I believe that all the other NT, autographs were, as I have allready said written in Aramaic, and that the Greek version of these is a translation. I have several versions of the Bible, some of them I consider to be better than others in rendering into English what God wrote in Hebrew, and Aramic, however, I would without hesitation say that all the different versions that I posses including the Watchtower one to be the Word of God. I have been told that there are thoes who have been converted as a result of what the Holy Spirit has said to them when that person has only had the JW version, or should I say perversion to hand. Our God is in no way limited, and is able to use any version in any language of His Word to bring about Salvation. I feel that this topic has just about been exausted, If you wish to discuss it any further, then I suggest you let me have your phone number, as I am able to phone you 24/7 at no cost for up to 70 mins. The Lord bless you Steve. Edwin. |
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106 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178768 | ||
Thank you Jeff. Please refer to my reply to Hank of 7.25 am to-day 10/24/06. Every blessing. Edwin. |
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107 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178776 | ||
Hi Mark. You said. "Concerning Mark 16:9-20, were you aware that one of these “early manuscripts”, the Vaticanus, while it does not contain this passage, does leave a blank space where that text would fit? But this really isn’t a problem either way I look at it. Its addition doesn’t conflict with any other teachings, and it omission doesn’t remove anything that’s not taught elsewhere. And nowhere, including in Mark 16, are we told that we should test the Lord, with the one exception that the Jews under the Old Covenant were to prove God concerning His promised blessing in their tithes - at least to the best of my knowledge! :-)". My answer to this is to be found in my reply to Hank posted at 7.25 am to-day 10/24/06. The other matters to which you refer will be delt with later on. Every blessing. Edwin. |
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108 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178780 | ||
Hi Steve. You say. "The only manuscript I know of that has been disputed concerning original language is Matthew. Your position is well outside the norm. I cannot understand why you would consider Paul's epistles to be written in Aramaic. The receiving churches and individuals would have been Gentile or mixed. Greek would have been the normal method of communication in order to be easily understood." My reply. Of all the writers of the NT, the only one who was not a native Jew was Luke, his native language would have been Greek. The others would have written in their own language Aramaic. As this language was only spoken by a small minority of the world's population at that time, it was most important that it be translated into Greek for publication, so that a majority of people would be able te read it, or have it read to them. New Testament Greek is not the same as the classical Greek of Plato and Homer, nor it is the same as "market place Greek" spoken by most people at that time. I will give you three examples, the conjunction "and", is used with far more ferequency that is the case in Greek, the expression "truly truly" is not normal in Greek. "Jesus answered and said", is not normal in Greek. it would have been, Jesus said, or He said, or He answered, or He said. You can see this even in the English translation never mind going back to the Greek. Anyone reading the Greek NT, would be able to see straight away that it was a very literal word for word translaion of onother language, in this case the Aramic autographs where this type of usage is the norm. Edwin. |
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109 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178829 | ||
Hi Jeff. Below is an extract from one of yours. "You wrote: "If as you say the Greek NT, is inspired by the Holy Soirit, then please explain the following At Matthew 26:64 Jesus's words are given as "You have said so", at Mark 14:64, as "I AM", and at Luke 22:70, as "You say that I am". Has the Holy Spirt made a mistake, or is it human error ?." Your questions stops short implying that the answer is one or the other; that is, human error or the Holy Spirit making a mistake. Now I know enough about you from the forum to know that you don't believe the Holy Spirit makes mistakes. So the only obvious conclusion is that you are requiring Mark to agree that there are mistakes and/or contradictions between the gospel records, or not answer the question. This is the tactic observed by secular writers and speakers who attempt to discredit Christianity." In reply let me advise you that sometimes my motive in submitting posts is not so much to express a point of view, or explain a doctrine, as to provoke a discussion. I have no problem with the three extracts above, Matthew , Mark, and Luke are all saying the same thing, in that Jesus is saying that He is indeed the Messiah. He could have said "I AM", as Mark indicates, but then we would have missed the real meaning of His response which the other Gospel writers reveal. In other words, what He is telling them is "You know very well who I am, you know that I am the Christ, I know exactly what you have said in private behind closed doors, which is why my reply was spoken in the past tense, "It is as you have said". That's all for now, more later. Bless you brother Jeff. Edwin. |
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110 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178861 | ||
Hi Jeff. In your post of 2.06pm 10/24/06, you quote me as saying "It will not be the Holy Spirit who will ask you to drink deadly poison" You then go on to ask me "Do you belive that Mark 16:18 is telling Christians to drink deadly poison?" Please explain why you are asking me a question to which you have allready given my answer? Edwin. |
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111 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178866 | ||
Hi Mark. Here is a response to a part of your post, I hope to deal with the rest another time. In reply let me advise you that sometimes my motive in submitting posts is not so much to express a point of view, or explain a doctrine, as to provoke a discussion. I have no problem with the three extracts above, Matthew , Mark, and Luke are all saying the same thing, in that Jesus is saying that He is indeed the Messiah. He could have said "I AM", as Mark indicates, but then we would have missed the real meaning of His response which the other Gospel writers reveal. In other words, what He is telling them is "You know very well who I am, you know that I am the Christ, I know exactly what you have said in private behind closed doors, which is why my reply was spoken in the past tense, "It is as you have said". The Lord bless you. Edwin. |
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112 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178912 | ||
Hi Mark. In short yes I do, but it is not that simple. Before I was converted I had read "Pilgrims Progress" but could not make any sense out of it, however, after conversion it was a completely different book, but it was the same book, reading it now was like reading Scripture, but was it "Inspired" in the same way that Scripture is? I agree that Paul was a well educated man, and would most likely speak fluant Greek, and in all probability would have dictated in Greek to the Scribe who took down Paul's words, but what Paul had to say was not allways given to him by the Holy Spirit. Now what about the other Gospel writers, the Galilean Fishermen, for example, do you think that like Paul they also were fluant in Greek ?, or would it be more than likely that they would either have written, or dictated in the language with which they were most familiar, the language they spoke every day, the language in which Jesus preached. Yours because I am His. Edwin. |
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113 | IS ANIMAL BREATH ETERNAL | Eccl 3:21 | ebrain | 183361 | ||
Hi again GRANDPAA1. Sorry, I forgot to mention that not only did God not breath into the nostrils of animals, but they are not said to be made in the image of God, or after His likeness, and for this reason I do not expect them to be resurrected. The Lord bless you. ebrain. |
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114 | origin of the devil | Ezek 28:13 | ebrain | 184173 | ||
You have said. "those Scriptures refer to ancient kings", when referring to, "Isaiah 14 and Ezekiel 28". This is a common mistake, as it is only the first 11 verses of each chapter that refers to ancient kings. You will note, that I started both my quotations at verse 12. Isaiah 14:12, says, "O Lucifer,* son of the morning!", this title as far as I am aware was never used by any of the ancient kings, nor is it recorded that any of them said, 'I will ascend into heaven, I will exalt my throne above the stars of God; I will also sit on the mount of the congregation". It is abundantly clear therefore that the individual refereed to in these verses is non other than Satan. Referring now to Ezekiel 28:12-13. The King of Tyre was born, not created, and there is no way in which he could have transported himself back in time to, "Eden, the garden of God;" You also said, (just as the angelic court are assumed in God's words 'Let us make man in OUR image' (Genesis 1.26). We are given a recognition that such spiritual beings exist but not given the details. They came before the creation of heaven (sky) and earth. (Although some would see them as included in Genesis 1.1). This also is incorrect as it is a Jewish explanation for "'Let us make man", "us", indicates to Christians, that God is not a single person, man is made in the image of God, that is to say that man is also a tri-unity, "Spirit Soul, and Body". The Jews say no God is not three persons, but only one person, and therefore when God said "us", He meant Himself, and the Angels. |
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115 | origin of the devil | Ezek 28:13 | ebrain | 184303 | ||
Hi Jonp. You have said, "Because the revelation of the triunity of God is so important that while there are certainly hints in the Old Testament, it could not really be presented fully until the coming of Jesus without seeming to give a concession to polytheism. Best wishes Jonp" Might I with respect ask you to read the following verses, except, do not read the very last line.. Now ask yourself the question, "Who is speaking".. The answer can only be, "Almighty God".. Now read the last line, and then tell me who it is.. Isa 48:12 "Listen to Me, O Jacob, And Israel, My called: I am He, I am the First, I am also the Last. Isa 48:13 Indeed My hand has laid the foundation of the earth, And My right hand has stretched out the heavens; When I call to them, They stand up together. Isa 48:14 "All of you, assemble yourselves, and hear! Who among them has declared these things? The LORD loves him; He shall do His pleasure on Babylon, And His arm shall be against the Chaldeans. Isa 48:15 I, even I, have spoken; Yes, I have called him, I have brought him, and his way will prosper. Isa 48:16 "Come near to Me, hear this: I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; From the time that it was, I was there. And now the Lord GOD and His Spirit Have* sent Me." Best wishes. ebrain. |
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116 | origin of the devil | Ezek 28:13 | ebrain | 184309 | ||
I have been a Christian for more than 45 years.. The verses I gave you have been shown to many individuals over many years, and no one, but no one, except you has failed to see clearly the Trinity, revealed in this passage, therefore, I find myself in complete agreement with your description of yourself. I |
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117 | Christ waslking through hell | Ezek 31:1 | ebrain | 160710 | ||
There is no Biblical referance that I am aware of that speaks of Christ walking through hell. Just before He died upon the cross He said "it is finished", in other words "nothing further is frquired". There is a Scripture that some people think indicates this, ie, 1st Peter Ch 3 v 19, however, it refers to the Spirit of Christ in Noah proclaiming to the people in Noah's day, (who are now in prison) just what was going to happen to them if they did not repent. I hope this is of some help. The Lord bless you. ebrain. |
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118 | What was reason for the virgin birth? | Matt 4:1 | ebrain | 184950 | ||
You asked. "my Question was. without a sin nature how is it possible to be tempted?" Adam and Eve did not have a sin nature before the fall. yet she was tempted. Hope this helps. ebrain. |
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119 | Aliennow Can Satan enter belivers heart | Matt 5:13 | ebrain | 159871 | ||
Please show me the Scriptire that tells us that Judas was a beliver. | ||||||
120 | Aliennow Can Satan enter belivers heart | Matt 5:13 | ebrain | 159942 | ||
You are incorrect, I have never said that Judas was a beliver. | ||||||
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