Results 81 - 100 of 262
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Results from: Notes Author: ebrain Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
81 | Questions I'm trying to answer | Joshua | ebrain | 168891 | ||
Thank you Jeff for your kind words of encouragement, I have taken the liberty of sending to your e-mail address, material on this subject that I had posted in the past to another similar website to this one. I hope you find it of interest, please let me know. Every blessing. pabrain. P.S. For other readers of this topic, I will send a separate post. |
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82 | Questions I'm trying to answer | Joshua | ebrain | 168892 | ||
Hi there Mark. I have sent to you also the same e-mail that I have sent to Jeff, I look forward to any comments you may care to let me have. The Lord bless you. Edwin. |
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83 | Questions I'm trying to answer | Joshua | ebrain | 168893 | ||
Hi Jeff. The answer to both your questions is, not so far as I am aware. All that I was refering to was "subliminal" material, not messages. As others have said, this is proof positive that only God could have written the Bible. Now here is a question for all except you Jeff, and Mark, as both of you know the answer. What did Jesus mean, when He said what is recorded at John 8:28."When you lift up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am". (NKJ) note "he", is not found in the greek, which is "ego ame", and should be rendered as "I AM". Let me give you a clue, read Johm 19:21. Remember we are talking about "Bible Codes". I am looking forward to reading what you come up with. |
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84 | Questions I'm trying to answer | Joshua | ebrain | 168941 | ||
Upon reflection it was unwise of me to type "Bible Codes" in the last line of the above post, it would have been better to have used "Subliminal Material". It is true that a great deal of nonsense has been published on the subject of "Bible Codes", and this has done a lot of harm to the genuine study of Biblical Subliminal material. There is no way in which I would consider using this information as an aid to Fortune Telling, or attepting to predict future events. As I have said before, this sumliminal information, only goes to show that no one other than the Lord our God could possibily have produced this Book, the Bible. |
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85 | why did GOD allow Jephthah killed | Judg 11:36 | ebrain | 179704 | ||
Thank you Mark. What is your understanding of verse 40, and why are we told this? Every blessing. Edwin. |
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86 | why did GOD allow Jephthah killed | Judg 11:36 | ebrain | 179743 | ||
Subject: Jephthat's daughter. Hi Mark. Verse 39, says "he carried out his vow", which I take to mean that he did what he promised God he would do, this to me at least is confirmed in the following verse where we find the word "lament" which means "a passionate expression of grief". Tell me why are the daughters of Israel lamenting, if there was a happy ending? You use the word honor, (which word we spell honour), and which indicates "to hold in high regard". The girls in Israel would not be using this word in respect of what Jephthat did, but what his daughter allowed to happen to her, this word also means "personal integrity, renown, reputation, sense of what is right". Why is it that only girls (v 40) that do this?,,,, because they are honouring one of their own sex. Verse 39, "She knew no man", this I understand does not refer to her virginity, but that she was cutting herself off from the prospect of marriage, and bearing children. Every blessing. Edwin. |
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87 | why did GOD allow Jephthah killed | Judg 11:36 | ebrain | 179744 | ||
You say "Beware of mystical and ingenious refinement; do not aim to spiritualize every passage. Real spirituality and fanciful spirituality are different things. The former is real, deep, sublime, and satisfactory, the latter is ideal, shallow, specious and delusive. "Seek the literal before the spiritual meaning." Please give me the literal meaning, and then the spiritual meaning of the Scripture passage in question., and then read my description of "Speculation", below, and the tell me if you feel that the spititual meaning I gave satisfies the all 4 points. Specualtion can be good, or bad, it can bless, or introduce error. If, Speculation is to be of any value must satisfy certain criteria. 1. It must honor the Lord our God, and cause people to praise, and glorify His Holy Name. 2. It must honor the person, and work of our Lord Jesus Christ. 3. It must be in agreement with all the other verses of Scripture that have something to say on that subject. 4. It must be of benefit to believers, and enable them to be more Christ like. If it does in fact satisfy all the above, then I think it is worth considering. |
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88 | why did GOD allow Jephthah killed | Judg 11:36 | ebrain | 179753 | ||
What you have said I find myself in wholehearted agreement with. that, however, is not the point. I have asked you specific questions, and these you have failed to answer, I can only conclude that you are unable to do so. | ||||||
89 | Is interracial marriage wrong? | Ruth 4:13 | ebrain | 186998 | ||
The question was. Question (short): Is interracial marriage wrong? My answer said it was not. |
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90 | Context versus what is translated. | 1 Sam 25:22 | ebrain | 165037 | ||
I have been told that LXX was available at least 250 years B.C. I do not know of any English Translation before adout the middle of the 2nd Centuary A.D, in outher words at least 1700 years plus years after LXX was in existance. You refer to the Jewish Scriptures, whereas LXX is a Greek Translation of the Hebrew?. |
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91 | Who is the writer of Psalm 111? | Psalm | ebrain | 161982 | ||
What does it matter who wrote it, do not regard the clay vessel, but rather the treasure within. | ||||||
92 | Whats is God's Name? | Ps 83:18 | ebrain | 181941 | ||
Thank you Machaira, and welcome. The following address might also be of help. http://www.dccsa.com/greatjoy/namesof.htm |
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93 | Whats is God's Name? | Ps 83:18 | ebrain | 181944 | ||
Further to my last post The Lord our God does not have a name in the sense that we have names, in order to identify/distinguish ourselves from one another. There is only one God, and for this reason no need for Him to have a name, as there is no other god with whom He might be confused. What is given in Scripture is a number of different descriptions of, His Nature, His ability, His capacity, etc, etc, What type/sort of Person He is. At Gen Ch 3 v 13. Moses said If they ask me "What is His name" what shall I say to them? The reply he received was not a name but a description. "I AM" which can also be rendered as "The perpetually self revealing all existent one". One more example, take the description EL SHADDAI, God Almighty, or "God All Sufficient", which is found 48 times in the OT. This is a compound title, made up of ELOHIM meaning the strong one who gives strength/nourishment, and the Hebrew word Shad which refers to the Female Breast. What the Lord is saying here is "I love you with the very special tender loving care that a nursing mother feels for the infant that she is breast feeding". May the Lord bless you, and keep you safe. Edwin. (ebrain) |
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94 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178468 | ||
The word "Lust" means "strong desire for sexual gratification" ebrain. |
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95 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178516 | ||
Hi Joan. This definition can be found in the COLLINS GEM ENGLISH DICTIONARY. Hope this helps. every blessing. ebrain. |
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96 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178519 | ||
Mat 5:28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart. Hi Mark. What really matters is what did Jesue have in mind when He used the word "Lust", it is clear from Matthew 5:28, above that He ment that state of mind in a man which leads to "Adultery" The question therefore, is not what the Greek word might, or might not mean, but what Jesus intended it to mean. Bless you brother. ebrain. |
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97 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178550 | ||
Steve. Please read my post to Mark, four above yours sent at 7.56 am to-day. You will see that I don't need a Greek dictionary/lexicon, only common sense. Now, please tell me that my post to Mark is wrong, and why. ebrain. |
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98 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178629 | ||
How do you know what word Jesus used, as He was more than likely speaking in Aramic, or Hebrew. The Greek translation was only used for the publication of the NT, as at that time more people spoke Greek than any other language. To say that Jesus used a word that did not really mean what He had in mind is an insult to Him, and offensive to me. ebrain. |
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99 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178656 | ||
Hi Mark. Thank you for your post. What is important here is not so much the Greek translation of what Jesus said, but rather His Teaching, what He wished to convey. It is clear to me that He is saying that from the Divine point of view, thinking about it is just the same as actually doing it. The word translated "Lust", used in this verse indicates what is in a man's mind when he is looking at a woman, Which state of mind God judges as being the same as if the man had in fact commited adultery with her. It makes no difference how you interpret the Greek word used, it's meaning in this passage of Scripture is exactly as I have indicated above. To suggest that Jesus did not use the right word, is an insult to Him. To say that the Holy Spirit translated the word used by Jesus with the wrong Greek word, is to insult the Holy Spirit. If as you say the Greek NT, is inspired by the Holy Soirit, then please explain the following At Matthew 26:64 Jesus's words are given as "You have said so", at Mark 14:64, as "I AM", and at Luke 22:70, as "You say that I am". Has the Holy Spirt made a mistake, or is it human error ?. At Matthew 20:20, it is the Mother that asks, whereas at Mark 10:35, it is the Sons that ask. Al four Gospels have different versions of , "the inscription above His head", see Matt27:37. Mark 15:26, Luke 23:38, and John 19:19. Every blessing. Edwin. |
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100 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178660 | ||
Dear John. You said You're the one who implied that Jesus used a word that did not really mean what He had in mind. I have never at any time as far as I am aware either said, or implied that Jesus used an incorrect word. Such a suggestion would be to insult Him, and rest assured, I have no intention of doing that. What is important here is not so much the Greek translation of what Jesus said, but rather His Teaching, what He wished to convey. It is clear to me that He is saying that from the Divine point of view, thinking about it is just the same as actually doing it. The word translated "Lust", used in this verse indicates what is in a man's mind when he is looking at a woman, Which state of mind God judges as being the same as if the man had in fact commited adultery with her. It makes no difference how you interpret the Greek word used, it's meaning in this passage of Scripture is exactly as I have indicated above. To suggest that Jesus did not use the right word, is an insult to Him. To say that the Holy Spirit translated the word used by Jesus with the wrong Greek word, is to insult the Holy Spirit. If as you say the Greek NT, is inspired by the Holy Soirit, then please explain the following At Matthew 26:64 Jesus's words are given as "You have said so", at Mark 14:64, as "I AM", and at Luke 22:70, as "You say that I am". Has the Holy Spirt made a mistake, or is it human error ?. At Matthew 20:20, it is the Mother that asks, whereas at Mark 10:35, it is the Sons that ask. Al four Gospels have different versions of , "the inscription above His head", see Matt27:37. Mark 15:26, Luke 23:38, and John 19:19. Your last line reads. Saying that it doesn't matter what the word means, it only matters what Jesus had in mind doesn't even make any sense. I experience no difficulty in understanding what Jesus is saying (had in mind), in the verse in question, I am sorry that it does not make sense to you. If I can be of nay help, then please ask. May the Lord bless you, and keep you safe. ebrain. |
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