Results 101 - 120 of 262
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Results from: Notes Author: ebrain Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
101 | What happens immediatly after you die? | 2 Corinthians | ebrain | 180371 | ||
I must confess that I did hesitate somewhat before sending my second post of yesterday, as I anticipated that it might provoke adverse comments, which of course it has, and in view of this I am quite happy for that post to be removed from this website, if the Moderators feel that it would be best to do so. I recently received the e-mail below, on a topic related to this one, and I would greatly value your advice on how to respond to same. Thank you. ebrain. Hello Edwin, I trust you are well. My daughter asked me a question the other night and I am unsure of the answer,thought you may be able to help us out. Samuel the Prophet when the witch called him up for Saul,told Saul that he and his sons would be with him the next day.Why did Saul and Samuel go to the same place?When Saul turned from the Lord. Surely Samuel would have gone to heaven as the thief on the cross was told by our Lord,"Today you will be with me in paradise" Ilook forward to your reply God Bless Tina 1Sa 28:19 "Moreover the LORD will also deliver Israel with you into the hand of the Philistines. And tomorrow you and your sons will be with me. The LORD will also deliver the army of Israel into the hand of the Philistines |
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102 | What is the application of wages of sin? | John 4:36 | ebrain | 180314 | ||
You are right of course. Gallons (UK) A British imperial capacity measure (liquid or dry) equal to 4 quarts or 4.545 liters. Gallons (US) United States liquid unit equal to 4 quarts or 3.785 liters. Based on the above, the cost of a US Gallon in the UK would be about 6.20 Dollars |
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103 | What is the application of wages of sin? | John 4:36 | ebrain | 180266 | ||
Doc you've been robbed, here in the UK,the top rate is around 9 Dollars (£5.00), £1.00, is equal to 1.945 Dollars at the moment. | ||||||
104 | why did GOD allow Jephthah killed | Judg 11:36 | ebrain | 179753 | ||
What you have said I find myself in wholehearted agreement with. that, however, is not the point. I have asked you specific questions, and these you have failed to answer, I can only conclude that you are unable to do so. | ||||||
105 | why did GOD allow Jephthah killed | Judg 11:36 | ebrain | 179744 | ||
You say "Beware of mystical and ingenious refinement; do not aim to spiritualize every passage. Real spirituality and fanciful spirituality are different things. The former is real, deep, sublime, and satisfactory, the latter is ideal, shallow, specious and delusive. "Seek the literal before the spiritual meaning." Please give me the literal meaning, and then the spiritual meaning of the Scripture passage in question., and then read my description of "Speculation", below, and the tell me if you feel that the spititual meaning I gave satisfies the all 4 points. Specualtion can be good, or bad, it can bless, or introduce error. If, Speculation is to be of any value must satisfy certain criteria. 1. It must honor the Lord our God, and cause people to praise, and glorify His Holy Name. 2. It must honor the person, and work of our Lord Jesus Christ. 3. It must be in agreement with all the other verses of Scripture that have something to say on that subject. 4. It must be of benefit to believers, and enable them to be more Christ like. If it does in fact satisfy all the above, then I think it is worth considering. |
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106 | why did GOD allow Jephthah killed | Judg 11:36 | ebrain | 179743 | ||
Subject: Jephthat's daughter. Hi Mark. Verse 39, says "he carried out his vow", which I take to mean that he did what he promised God he would do, this to me at least is confirmed in the following verse where we find the word "lament" which means "a passionate expression of grief". Tell me why are the daughters of Israel lamenting, if there was a happy ending? You use the word honor, (which word we spell honour), and which indicates "to hold in high regard". The girls in Israel would not be using this word in respect of what Jephthat did, but what his daughter allowed to happen to her, this word also means "personal integrity, renown, reputation, sense of what is right". Why is it that only girls (v 40) that do this?,,,, because they are honouring one of their own sex. Verse 39, "She knew no man", this I understand does not refer to her virginity, but that she was cutting herself off from the prospect of marriage, and bearing children. Every blessing. Edwin. |
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107 | why did GOD allow Jephthah killed | Judg 11:36 | ebrain | 179704 | ||
Thank you Mark. What is your understanding of verse 40, and why are we told this? Every blessing. Edwin. |
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108 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | ebrain | 179064 | ||
Greetings Steve. Let me try once more to make my position clear. At Matthew 26:53, Jesus said "Do you think that I cannot appeal to my Father" (ESV), please tell me Steve would I be right in interpreting this as "I can appeal to my Father", I am able to do it, it is not impossible for me to do this , however, although I can, I will not, as if I did, how would Scripture be fullfiled?, (verse 54). Please, Please tell me Steve, have I completely misunderstood what Jesus was saying, and if so how then should I have understood it? If Jesus were to have done what He clearly said He could do, and thereby have prevented Scripture from being fullfiled, would He have sinned?, Yes, or No. For what it is worth my understanding that Jesus could as a man have sinned, but did not do so , causes me to hold Him in much higher regard than if it were impossible for Him to have done so. In other words it is not a problem for me, but in fact causes me to rejoice, and be exceeding glad that my Saviour is such a wonderful, brave , and courageous person. Every blessing. Edwin. |
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109 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | ebrain | 179044 | ||
Steve. I have never at any time said that God could sin, I am in full agreement with you, God cannot sin. That however is not the question. What I have been dealing with is the humanity, and not the Deity of Jesus. It is written of God that He "will neither slumber nor sleep", Psalm 121:4. (ESV), Jesus went to sleep in the back of a boat. Tell me would this refer to the Divine nature of Jesus, or His human nature? When Jesus said "not my will but thine de done". He is indicating His ability to chose, are you saying that He did not have the ability to chose? Please explain to me why He said this, if He was icapable of free choice?. Would you also please respond to the other questions that I have asked in the post to which you have replied. Edwin. |
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110 | Faith | Gen 32:10 | ebrain | 179027 | ||
Hi mae68. The best defination of "Faith", that I know of is found at Hebrews 11:6. where we are told " But without faith [it is] impossible to please [him]: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and [that] he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him." The first part of this verse presents no problem, as all people know that God really exists, even if they say they dont. The second part which reads "and [that] he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him." Is the hard bit, for it enables you to know if you really are exercising true faith, for example, do you really know that He will reward thoes who do diligently seek after Him? Is that the state of your mind, when you request something in prayer? see Mark 11:24, and 1st John 5:14, you will find that Matthew 6:8 will help you to understand Mark 11:24. May the Lord bless you, and keep you safe. ebrain. |
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111 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | ebrain | 179026 | ||
Steve. Greetings Brother. There is no need for you to apologize, you have not offended me, dismayed perhaps, frustrated possibly, but offended no. I asked you to look at my post to NewPilgrim, which you do not appear to have done, as you have not made any comment on, "not My will but Thine be done". Your problem as I see it is one that is all too common with a lot of christians, that is an inability to reconcile the Diety of our Lord Jesus, with His true humanity. Let me ask you a number of questions, but before I do so let me state that I have no problem with the fact that Jesus is God, as anyone will know who has read what I have had to say on that subject on this Forum, and as the many verses of Scripture I have quoted indicate. What follows might seem as if I am playing the Devil's Advocate. This is not in fact the case, but the verses I shall refer to could be used by his servants to undermine a believers faith. Unfortunatly this is helped along by thoes Preachers who will say "Although we are considering the humanity of Jesus, let it be clearly understood that at no time was He any less than God". This teaching plays straight into the hands of the Evil one, who will try to use it to his advantage. Jesus is refered to as "My Servant" at Isaiah 52:13, which is where one should start to read Isaiah Ch 53. Tell me how can the servant of God, also at the same time be God? Psalm 22:1. Jesus cried out "My God My God", Tell me how it is possible that He who is God could possibly address Himself as My God? only someone who is not God could say this. Hebrews 2:9. "Made lower than the angles". Hebrews 10:7. "To do your will O God". 1 Corinthinans 15:28. "Then the Son himself will also be subjected to him.....God". John 5:30. Please tell me why it is that God has to say "I can of my self do nothing". Why God has to say "As I hear I judge". who does He take advice from? Why is it that the only way in which God knows that His judgment is righteous, is because He dose not seek His own will? Why are we told at Acts 2:22, "God did through him", if it was Jesus who performed the Miracles? Phillipians 2:9. How can you give someone what they have allready got? Note see Isaiah 45:22-23, for the application of this mame. Rest assured that I have no problem with the verses I have quoted above, they do not prevent me from rejoicing in the fact that Jesus is God. Refering now to Coll 2:9. This is a verse that I especially love, and have used many times to indicate that the entire Godhead, that is all three persons suffered and died on the cross, and not just only the man Jesus. The Lord bless you Steve. Edwin. |
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112 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | ebrain | 178969 | ||
Hi Steve. You said. "I think we can agree that He had the ability to call on the Father", What is the point of His saying this, if as you maintain He was incapable of doing it?, it just does not make sense. If He said He could do this, which He did in fact say, but it was impossible for Him to do so, then you are calling Him a lier, and as I have said in my post to "NewPilgrim" on this topic, (which post I suggest you read), "my Jesus is not a lier". Please tell me what Coll 2:9 has to do with this? "in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily", so what, how does this relate to what Jesus said at Matthew 26:53?. |
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113 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | ebrain | 178967 | ||
Hi NewPilgrim. Welcome to this forum, it;s great to have you on board. I find myself in complete and total agreement with all that you have said, you must have a brilliant teacher. Might I add in support of what you have written, our Lord's words when He said "not my will but thine be done". This statement of His only makes sense if it were possible for Him to go against His Fathers will, if as others have said "Jesus could not do this", then they are calling Him a lier, and my Jesus is not a lier. I look forward to further input from you. Every blessing. ebrain. |
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114 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178912 | ||
Hi Mark. In short yes I do, but it is not that simple. Before I was converted I had read "Pilgrims Progress" but could not make any sense out of it, however, after conversion it was a completely different book, but it was the same book, reading it now was like reading Scripture, but was it "Inspired" in the same way that Scripture is? I agree that Paul was a well educated man, and would most likely speak fluant Greek, and in all probability would have dictated in Greek to the Scribe who took down Paul's words, but what Paul had to say was not allways given to him by the Holy Spirit. Now what about the other Gospel writers, the Galilean Fishermen, for example, do you think that like Paul they also were fluant in Greek ?, or would it be more than likely that they would either have written, or dictated in the language with which they were most familiar, the language they spoke every day, the language in which Jesus preached. Yours because I am His. Edwin. |
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115 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178866 | ||
Hi Mark. Here is a response to a part of your post, I hope to deal with the rest another time. In reply let me advise you that sometimes my motive in submitting posts is not so much to express a point of view, or explain a doctrine, as to provoke a discussion. I have no problem with the three extracts above, Matthew , Mark, and Luke are all saying the same thing, in that Jesus is saying that He is indeed the Messiah. He could have said "I AM", as Mark indicates, but then we would have missed the real meaning of His response which the other Gospel writers reveal. In other words, what He is telling them is "You know very well who I am, you know that I am the Christ, I know exactly what you have said in private behind closed doors, which is why my reply was spoken in the past tense, "It is as you have said". The Lord bless you. Edwin. |
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116 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178861 | ||
Hi Jeff. In your post of 2.06pm 10/24/06, you quote me as saying "It will not be the Holy Spirit who will ask you to drink deadly poison" You then go on to ask me "Do you belive that Mark 16:18 is telling Christians to drink deadly poison?" Please explain why you are asking me a question to which you have allready given my answer? Edwin. |
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117 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178829 | ||
Hi Jeff. Below is an extract from one of yours. "You wrote: "If as you say the Greek NT, is inspired by the Holy Soirit, then please explain the following At Matthew 26:64 Jesus's words are given as "You have said so", at Mark 14:64, as "I AM", and at Luke 22:70, as "You say that I am". Has the Holy Spirt made a mistake, or is it human error ?." Your questions stops short implying that the answer is one or the other; that is, human error or the Holy Spirit making a mistake. Now I know enough about you from the forum to know that you don't believe the Holy Spirit makes mistakes. So the only obvious conclusion is that you are requiring Mark to agree that there are mistakes and/or contradictions between the gospel records, or not answer the question. This is the tactic observed by secular writers and speakers who attempt to discredit Christianity." In reply let me advise you that sometimes my motive in submitting posts is not so much to express a point of view, or explain a doctrine, as to provoke a discussion. I have no problem with the three extracts above, Matthew , Mark, and Luke are all saying the same thing, in that Jesus is saying that He is indeed the Messiah. He could have said "I AM", as Mark indicates, but then we would have missed the real meaning of His response which the other Gospel writers reveal. In other words, what He is telling them is "You know very well who I am, you know that I am the Christ, I know exactly what you have said in private behind closed doors, which is why my reply was spoken in the past tense, "It is as you have said". That's all for now, more later. Bless you brother Jeff. Edwin. |
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118 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178780 | ||
Hi Steve. You say. "The only manuscript I know of that has been disputed concerning original language is Matthew. Your position is well outside the norm. I cannot understand why you would consider Paul's epistles to be written in Aramaic. The receiving churches and individuals would have been Gentile or mixed. Greek would have been the normal method of communication in order to be easily understood." My reply. Of all the writers of the NT, the only one who was not a native Jew was Luke, his native language would have been Greek. The others would have written in their own language Aramaic. As this language was only spoken by a small minority of the world's population at that time, it was most important that it be translated into Greek for publication, so that a majority of people would be able te read it, or have it read to them. New Testament Greek is not the same as the classical Greek of Plato and Homer, nor it is the same as "market place Greek" spoken by most people at that time. I will give you three examples, the conjunction "and", is used with far more ferequency that is the case in Greek, the expression "truly truly" is not normal in Greek. "Jesus answered and said", is not normal in Greek. it would have been, Jesus said, or He said, or He answered, or He said. You can see this even in the English translation never mind going back to the Greek. Anyone reading the Greek NT, would be able to see straight away that it was a very literal word for word translaion of onother language, in this case the Aramic autographs where this type of usage is the norm. Edwin. |
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119 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178776 | ||
Hi Mark. You said. "Concerning Mark 16:9-20, were you aware that one of these “early manuscripts”, the Vaticanus, while it does not contain this passage, does leave a blank space where that text would fit? But this really isn’t a problem either way I look at it. Its addition doesn’t conflict with any other teachings, and it omission doesn’t remove anything that’s not taught elsewhere. And nowhere, including in Mark 16, are we told that we should test the Lord, with the one exception that the Jews under the Old Covenant were to prove God concerning His promised blessing in their tithes - at least to the best of my knowledge! :-)". My answer to this is to be found in my reply to Hank posted at 7.25 am to-day 10/24/06. The other matters to which you refer will be delt with later on. Every blessing. Edwin. |
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120 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178768 | ||
Thank you Jeff. Please refer to my reply to Hank of 7.25 am to-day 10/24/06. Every blessing. Edwin. |
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