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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Cain's wife is from who? | Acts 17:26 | lightedsteps | 223601 | ||
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2 | Did John really baptise Jesus?? | Bible general Archive 4 | lightedsteps | 223578 | ||
What has happened? "This thread has been temporarily restricted from appearing on the homepage. If you submit a question, answer, or note to this thread, it will be processed and added to the thread, but will not appear on the homepage." It was not my intention for the discussion to become controversial, but seeing it apparently has, with all respect for our gracious host, the Lockman Foundation, this will be my last post on the matter. Grace be unto you all lightedsteps |
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3 | Did John really baptise Jesus?? | Bible general Archive 4 | lightedsteps | 223577 | ||
Dear Brad My statement "Jesus was totally, Man, and totally God." "This means Jesus had two diametrically opposed natures, the nature of man, (sin nature) and the Nature of God, Divine nature." Your statement Nestorianism is the error that Jesus is two distinct persons. Jesus was one person in two distinct and inseparable natures: divine and human. Please forgive the oversight, it was the only way I could think of wording "MY" thoughts, I assumed when I said natures, you would understand. Does this work for you? What we see in looking at Jesus, are two distinct natures in one person, human and divine, both of these natures becoming inseparable. Jesus will be fully God, and fully human for all eternity. In Jesus, His human and divine natures are not intermixed, or mingled, they are and have been united, but without losing either of these separate identities. Again in my words, Jesus had two distinct natures, but the sin nature of man was swallowed up in life, ie, the Divine nature of God. Just as it is with us, upon our becoming regenerated. The divine nature is always, and in all cases dominant over the sin nature of man, as it is now in our mortal bodies. Sorry for the misunderstanding, I'm not a theologian, and I may not put things into the correct order. Grace be unto you lightedsteps |
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4 | Did John really baptise Jesus?? | Bible general Archive 4 | lightedsteps | 223575 | ||
Brother Tim In your saying "None of these passages describe the human nature that Christ possessed. He was without sin in any form" Do you mean the human nature that Christ possessed, is categorically different than ours, on the grounds He was without sin in any form? Does not that viewpoint then precipitate the discussion, whether or not we are bearing within "our" flesh the actual sin of Adam, or rather we carry the consequences of that very sin? Jesus was born, lived, died without sin, otherwise He would not be a fit sacrifice for the sins of man. He had life in Himself, "HE IS THE LIFE" Mat 1:20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: (FOR THAT WHICH IS CONCEIVED IN HER IS OF THE HOLY GHOST). 1Jn 3:9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. 1Jn 5:18 We know that whosoever is born of God sinneth not; but he that is begotten of God keepeth himself, and that wicked one toucheth him not. We are born without sin, but we have death abiding in us, which is the consequence of Adams sin, therefore we succumb to sin. 1Co 15:56 The sting of death is sin; and the strength of sin is the law. Upon our salvation we are in Christ, we too become born of God, having the seed of God abiding in our fleshly bodies, therefore the verses in 1 John now apply to us also. We have obtained the same life in our earthen vessels, that Jesus had abiding in Him, we have been set free from the bondage in which we were held. Grace be unto you lightedsteps |
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5 | Did John really baptise Jesus?? | Bible general Archive 4 | lightedsteps | 223567 | ||
Brother Brad Having a sin nature is not sin, or sinning. When we look in the bible, we don't find either “sin nature”, or “original sin” both of these terms have been devised to explain to ourselves as humans, a dynamic which cannot be explained in the physical realm, because it is a Spiritual happening (event), man has come to these terms by using selected verses for our own understanding. The sin nature, is nothing more than having a propensity toward sin, but having this tendency is not, in and of itself sinning. Although "WE HAVE" all sinned, coming short of the glory of God. This sin nature passes on to us "Spiritually", the original sin of Adam is not a physical thing, therefore it cannot be passed on to us through genetics. We acquire this sin nature (original sin) "Spiritually" simply by the fact "WE are all the descendants of Adam. In looking at Romans 7:13–25 we find these sinful tendencies as being part of the flesh, what Paul calls the (sarx in Greek), which means the flesh or body. Rom 7:18 For I know that in me (that is, in my flesh,) dwelleth no good thing: for to will is present with me; but how to perform that which is good I find not. This is the place we find ourselves to be in, but we only have one nature, but God be Praised, in Jesus physical body also dwelled "GOD". Mat 1:23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us. Therefore being GOD, Incarnate, He was able to keep Himself from sinning. You seemed to have missed the point, Jesus was totally, Man, and totally God. This means Jesus had two diametrically opposed natures, the nature of man, (sin nature) and the Nature of God, Divine nature. This would mean that no matter how depraved the nature of man might be, the Divine nature of God is greater, thereby able to overcome any temptation to sin. Now using ourselves as comparison, the life we now live, is the same life Jesus was able to live. 2Pe 1:4 Whereby are given unto us exceeding great and precious promises: that by these ye might be partakers of the divine nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust. 1Co 10:13 There hath no temptation taken you but such as is common to man: but God is faithful, who will not suffer you to be tempted above that ye are able; but will with the temptation also make a way to escape, that ye may be able to bear it. When we receive salvation, we are freed from sin through Christ. Rom 6:7 For he that is dead is freed from sin. If we are able to live a sinless life, while still in the flesh, because we have become partakers of the Divine Nature of God, how much more was Christ preserved blameless by this same Divine Nature which indwelt Him? Therefore Jesus can have the sin nature of man, and still not sin. Grace be unto you lightedsteps |
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6 | Did John really baptise Jesus?? | Bible general Archive 4 | lightedsteps | 223531 | ||
Brother Beja Heb 4:15 For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin. How could Jesus be touched with the feeling of our infirmities, unless He actually had those infirmities Himself, and being in all points tempted like as we are, unless He did have the potential to give in to that temptation, which is inherent in man. There had to be the same possibility of sinning in His flesh, as we have in ours, in order for Him to be able to overcome everything for us, because we can't. There is no temptation without the possibility of succumbing to that temptation. To have the sin nature of all men, does not in any way mean that Jesus had sin in Him, or that He did sin, what it means, is that He had the potential for sin, anything less than that potential makes Him less than a man, He had to have the potential to succumb to temptation, otherwise the temptation would be void. We all know of the temptation that Jesus underwent in the wilderness for the forty days after He was baptized. Luke 4:1-13 But all of these temptations were addressed to the Son Of God by Satan. Here then is a temptation that Jesus endured as a man. Mat 26:39 And he went a little further, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt. Mat 26:42 He went away again the second time, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if this cup may not pass away from me, except I drink it, thy will be done. Mat 26:44 And he left them, and went away again, and prayed the third time, saying the same words. These are the prayers of a man in the throes of mental anguish, being tormented with the knowledge of the task before Him. As a man, this death He was facing was not something He wanted to do, but He submitted to the will of God. If He had walked away as he definitely wanted to, He would still have been the son of God, but in His walking away safely, He would not have secured "US" to the utmost. He has felt our fear, as He had to feel everything else we think or feel. This could not be accomplished by anything less than being 100 percent human being, which includes all of the frailties of man. Grace be unto you lightedsteps |
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7 | Avoiding Bible Abuse | Mark 12:24 | lightedsteps | 223399 | ||
Hi Doc Is there someplace I can get a transcript of this teaching by Mr. Belkeley? I have dial up, and my computer will not play videos:-( Grace be unto you lightedsteps |
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8 | are there multiple infillings? | Acts | lightedsteps | 223397 | ||
Greetings to you Makarios The following are the Commentaries of John Gill, on the verses in question. Acts 13:9 that he was filled with the Holy Ghost; which does not design the gifts and graces of the Holy Ghost in general, (WITH WHICH HE WAS ALWAYS FILLED), and thereby qualified for his work as an apostle; but in particular, that he had by the Spirit, not only a discerning of the wickedness of this man, but of the will of God, to make him at this time a public example of divine wrath and vengeance, for his opposition to the Gospel:; "Always filled, "Continually", not another in filling." Acts 13:52 And the disciples were filled with joy… Meaning either the "apostles", as the Ethiopic version renders it, Paul and Barnabas; who rejoiced, both at the success they had met with, and because they were counted worthy to suffer reproach and persecution for the sake of Christ and his Gospel: or rather the disciples at Antioch, and other parts of Pisidia, the new converts; who were filled with joy at the Gospel being preached unto them, and at the constancy and courage of the apostles in suffering for it: and with the Holy Ghost; which, with the former, designs the same thing as spiritual joy, or joy in the Holy Ghost; or else the gifts and graces of the Spirit, (WHICH THEY HAD BOTH FOR THEIR OWN COMFORT), and (THE ADVANTAGE OF OTHERS). "Which they had, not another in filling" Grace be unto you lightedsteps |
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9 | are there multiple infillings? | Acts | lightedsteps | 223385 | ||
Brother Tim Aren't there two differing experiences which are being spoken of, as the same event? When we are speaking of an (In Filling), can we interchange it with what we understand to be (The Baptism of the Holy Spirit)? When a person receives salvation, are they not in filled with the Holy Spirit? Is this then the same event spoken of taking place on the day of Pentecost, with the evidence of speaking in tongues? Or was that event, what is referred to as the Baptism of the Holy Spirit? When it is said (in filling, or indwelling) are these two terms, in reference to the same event? When the term Baptism of the Holy Spirit is used, is it referring to an indwelling, or in filling? It appears as though the term in filling, or indwelling are referring to our being filled upon Salvation, as the token, the earnest of our inheritance, the earnest of the Holy Spirit. The term Baptism of the Holy Spirit, appears to be referring to an outward manifestation that takes place, but not that any in filling is needful, or has to take place. It is understood, when we are in filled, indwelt by the Holy Spirit, we become the Sons of God, does the Holy Spirit ever leave? If not, then what would be the necessity of being in filled repeatedly? Can we have more of what we have already received in full? But if what we are really speaking of, is in actuality the Baptism of the Holy Spirit, then yes the manifestations would (APPEAR) as a new event taking place every time, but only outwardly. So, if the Baptism of the Holy Spirit, is an outward manifestation, there is no in filling that has to take place. It therefore becomes nothing more than the working of the Holy Spirit through the believer. These have been my thoughts on the matter. I do not believe it necessary, for the believer to be (In Filled) multiple times, seems as though that would be tantamount to losing our salvation, if the Holy Spirit leaves us, making it necessary to be (In Filled) again. But then again, if it is not believed that speaking in tongues, or any of The Gifts of the Spirit are for today, the whole question is nothing more than academic. Grace be unto you lightedsteps |
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10 | are there multiple infillings? | Acts | lightedsteps | 223380 | ||
Brother Tim I don't mean to be argumentative, but haven't you just fallen into the same trap, you have cautioned others to beware of? "One should never base doctrine on a narrative account." But then you say "In Acts, we find that the same people are filled with the Spirit more than one on several occasions." Does scripture tell us specifically in other places, that there are, or should be in fact multiple in fillings? Grace be unto you lightedsteps |
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11 | Is there always the evidence of tongues? | Acts | lightedsteps | 223341 | ||
Hi vnct There are some questions you need to ask this minister. Understand that the only type of tongue spoken about in Acts, are known languages of the world. Understand also, there are different types of tongues spoken about in chapters 12, and 14 of 1Cor. These questions will avoid any confusion, as to what "he" is speaking about, or advocating. 1) Ask for the list of all these occurrences, so you can study it yourself, that way you can see exactly which ones he is referring to. Then study the book of acts for yourself to see if there are any other places where this occurred, where the speaking in tongues did not take place. (Refer back to the list TIM gave you in his post) 2) Ask the minister, are these tongues, known languages, as on the day of Pentecost, or is it what he would call a heavenly language, (the tongues of angels)? You need for him to clarify what kinds of tongues he is speaking about, in order to verify his claims, because there are two different types of tongues spoken about in Corinthians. Grace be unto you lightedsteps |
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12 | SEARCHING FOR THE TRUTH | Matt 5:17 | lightedsteps | 223251 | ||
Part (2) and the word here used signifies a looking wisely and intently, with great care and thought, and not in a slight and superficial manner; and such a looking is designed, as is attended with effect; such an one as transforms into the same image that is beheld, from glory to glory; and happy is the man that so looks into it. And continueth therein; is not moved away from the hope of the Gospel, nor carried about with divers and strange doctrines; but is established in the faith, stands fast in it, and abides by it; or continues looking into this glass, and to Christ, the author and finisher of faith, who is beheld in it; and keeps his eye upon it, and the object held forth in it; and constantly attends the ministration of it: he being not a forgetful hearer; but takes heed to the things he hears and sees, lest he should let them slip; and being conscious of the weakness of his memory, implores the divine Spirit to be his remembrancer, and bring to his mind, with fresh power and light, what he has heard: but a doer of the work; of the work of faith, and labour of love, and patience of hope, and of every work and ordinance the Gospel ministry points unto; doing and being subject to all in faith, from a principle of love, and with a view to the glory of God and Christ. This man shall be blessed in his deed; or "doing", and while he is doing; not that he is blessed for what he does, but "in" what he does; see (Psalms 19:11) he having, in hearing the word, and looking into it, and in submitting to every ordinance of the Gospel, the presence of God, the discoveries of his love, communion with Christ, and communication of grace from him by the Spirit; so that Wisdom's ways become ways of pleasantness, and all her paths are peace; see (Psalms 65:4) (84:4,5) , moreover, in all such a man does, he is prosperous and successful; and so he is blessed in his deed, by God, whose blessing makes rich, both in spirituals and temporals: there seems to be an allusion to the blessed man in (Psalms 1:1,3). Grace be unto you Lightedsteps |
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13 | SEARCHING FOR THE TRUTH | Matt 5:17 | lightedsteps | 223250 | ||
Hello Beja Coming across this last night, I felt this commentary on the subject better puts into words what I was trying to convey, and far beyond my feeble attempt has been. My only regret is, I did not think of him sooner. Sorry but this will have to be a two part post, it's a couple hundred characters to long. Commentary by John Gill James 1:25 But whoso looketh into the perfect law of liberty… By which is meant, not the moral law, but the Gospel; for only of that is the apostle speaking in the context: this is no other than the word of truth, with which God begets men of his own will; and is the ingrafted word which is able to save, and of which men should be doers, as well as hearers, (James 1:18,21,22) , and this is compared to a glass by the Apostle Paul, (2 Corinthians 3:18) , and the word here used for looking into it is the same word the Apostle Peter uses of the angels, who desired to look into the mysteries of the Gospel, (1 Peter 1:12) all which serve to strengthen this sense; now the Gospel is called a law; not that it is a law, strictly speaking, consisting of precepts, and established and enforced by sanctions penalties; for it is a declaration of righteousness and salvation by Christ; a publication of peace and pardon by him; and a free promise of eternal life, through him; but as it is an instruction, or doctrine: the law with the Jews is called (hrwt) , because it is teaching and instructive; and everything that is so is by them called by this name: hence we find the doctrine of the Messiah, which is no other than the Gospel, is in the Old Testament called the law of the Lord, and his law, (Isaiah 2:2) (42:4) and in the New Testament it is called the law, or doctrine of faith, (Romans 3:27) and this doctrine is perfect, as in (Psalms 19:7) , it being a perfect plan of truths, containing in it all truth, as it is in Jesus, even all the treasures of wisdom and knowledge; and because it is a revelation of things perfect; of the perfect righteousness of Christ, and of perfect justification by it, and of free and full pardon of sins through him, and of complete salvation by him; and because it directs to Christ, in whom perfection is: and it is a law or doctrine of liberty; (ton thv eleuyhriav) , "that which is of liberty"; which has liberty for its subject, which treats of it, even of the liberty wherewith Christ makes his people free: the Gospel proclaims this liberty to captive souls; and is the word of truth, which makes them free, or is the means of freeing them from the slavery of sin, from the captivity of Satan, and from the bondage of the law; and is what gives souls freedom and boldness at the throne of grace; and is that which leads them into the liberty of grace here, and gives them a view and hope of the glorious liberty of the children of God hereafter. This doctrine is as a glass to look into; in which is beheld in the glory of Christ's person and office, and grace; and though (by) the law is the knowledge of sin, yet a man never so fully and clearly discovers the sin that dwells in him, and the swarms of corruption which are in his heart, as when the light of the glorious Gospel shines into him, and when in it he beholds the beauty and glory of Jesus Christ; see (Isaiah 6:5) and looking into this glass, or into this doctrine, is by faith, and with the eyes of the understanding, opened and enlightened by the Spirit of God; End Part (1) |
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14 | SEARCHING FOR THE TRUTH | Matt 5:17 | lightedsteps | 223231 | ||
Good day Ariel Thank you for your thoughts, but these choice terms, are from James, as far as Deut, 6:6 it is nothing more than God telling them to obey, it's not really being used as a synonym for the Law. What I am looking for, is where the words are used as synonyms, in order to say, when James teaches. Jas 1:22-24 22) But be ye doers of the word, and not hearers only, deceiving your own selves. 23) For if any be a hearer of the word, and not a doer, he is like unto a man beholding his natural face in a glass: 24) For he beholdeth himself, and goeth his way, and straightway forgetteth what manner of man he was. That we can then fully understand, he is speaking about the LAW, the Law of Moses. Otherwise we cannot, and should not change the words that he did use. ie, (hearer of the word, doers of the word), If we do, then we change the meaning of just what James was teaching. If James meant to say Law, why didn't he just say LAW instead of WORD, why use a metaphor? This is the metaphor of James Jas 1:23 For if any be a hearer of the word, and not a doer, he is like unto a man beholding his natural face in a glass: Here is the same metaphor used by Paul 1Co 13:12 For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known. 2Co 3:18 But we all, with open face beholding as in a glass the glory of the Lord, (ARE CHANGED INTO THE SAME IMAGE) from glory to glory, even as by the Spirit of the Lord. Are both James, and Paul speaking of the LAW? IMO James is not speaking of the LAW when he uses the term Law of Liberty. James does teach on the LAW in chapter 2, but he never uses the term Law of liberty, or engrafted word, as descriptive of the LAW in that teaching. Jas 2:8-11 James' teaching on the LAW 8) If ye fulfil the royal law according to the scripture, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself, ye do well: 9) But if ye have respect to persons, ye commit sin, and are convinced of the law as transgressors. 10) For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all. 11) For he that said, Do not commit adultery, said also, Do not kill. Now if thou commit no adultery, yet if thou kill, thou art become a transgressor of the law. Then he goes on to say. Jas 2:12 So speak ye, and so do, as they that shall be judged by the law of liberty. Is he in verse 12, still speaking about the LAW? Is he teaching the LAW, is the Law of Liberty? Is the LAW ever called the Law of Liberty? Listen what Paul says about the law. Rom 3:19 Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God. Rom 3:20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin. Whenever you, have used the term (THE WORD) were you speaking of (THE LAW)? You say "exactly what commands were being spoken of for believers to obey if not the commands found in the books of Moses?" I think these should suffice. Mat 7:24 Therefore whosoever heareth these sayings of mine, and doeth them, I will liken him unto a wise man, which built his house upon a rock: Joh 14:15 If ye love me, keep my commandments. Joh 14:21 He that hath my commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth me: and he that loveth me shall be loved of my Father, and I will love him, and will manifest myself to him. Joh 15:10 If ye keep my commandments, ye shall abide in my love; even as I have kept my Father's commandments, and abide in his love. These sayings of Jesus, were being spread throughout the country, this was being done before any of the Apostolic writings, or the New Testament. Luk 1:65 And fear came on all that dwelt round about them: and all these sayings were noised abroad throughout all the hill country of Judaea. Grace be unto you lightedsteps |
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15 | SEARCHING FOR THE TRUTH | Matt 5:17 | lightedsteps | 223224 | ||
Hello ariel levin Welcome to the forum If I may. Is there anywhere in the Old or New Testaments, where the word "LAW" has been substituted with, for, or by the word "WORD", or visa versa? Or have you ever found in your studies, these two words being used as synonyms? Grace be unto you lightedsteps |
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16 | SEARCHING FOR THE TRUTH | Matt 5:17 | lightedsteps | 223220 | ||
Beja Yes, that is exactly what I have said. Jesus is the only one to ever keep the law, why then would James teach that we should be doers of the law? If that is what is being taught, then we should be able to keep the law also, according to James. Jas 1:22,23 22) But be ye doers of the word, and not hearers only, deceiving your own selves. 23) For if any be a hearer of the word, and not a doer, he is like unto a man beholding his natural face in a glass: Would we not be deceiving ourselves if we thought we could keep the law? The following scripture tells us metaphorically what the law is, and it's purpose. Gal 3:24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith. Gal 6:13 For neither they themselves who are circumcised keep the law; but desire to have you circumcised, that they may glory in your flesh. After our being justified, why then try to keep the law that Christ has already kept for us.This was the reason we needed a savior, because He did keep the law, we are justified in Him. It is by Grace through faith, and that not of ourselves. Rom 7:6 But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter. Rom 2:26 Therefore if the uncircumcision keep the righteousness of the law, shall not his uncircumcision be counted for circumcision? Rom 8:4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit. Gal 3:23-27 23) But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed. 24) Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith. 25) (BUT AFTER THAT FAITH IS COME, WE ARE NO LONGER UNDER A SCHOOL MASTER). 26) For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus. 27) For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ. Verse 25 tells us we are no longer under a school master, its purpose has been fulfilled in Christ. Therefore it is not the law, but the engrafted word, the perfect law of liberty, and our abiding in it, that we will be blessed. Grace be unto you lightedsteps |
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17 | SEARCHING FOR THE TRUTH | Matt 5:17 | lightedsteps | 223215 | ||
Beja The Gospel, Word of Truth, The Law of liberty. Grace be unto you lightedsteps |
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18 | SEARCHING FOR THE TRUTH | Matt 5:17 | lightedsteps | 223207 | ||
Brother Beja Hoping this will suffice, as I am not sure of the point of your question. Said - Hebrew - Amar - The literal spoken Word of God Gen 1:3 And God said, Let there be light: and there was light. Word - Greek - Lego - A relating of Gods' words in discourse (Prophesy) Heb 1:1 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners Spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets Word - Greek - Logos - The word of God incarnate, Jesus Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. Rev 19:13 And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God. Scripture - Greek Graphe, The written word of God, Holy Scripture 2Ti 3:16 All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: Grace be unto you lightedsteps |
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19 | SEARCHING FOR THE TRUTH | Matt 5:17 | lightedsteps | 223200 | ||
Hi Doc 1) The law is described as, a yoke - Acts 15:10 - Gal. 5:1 2) The law is called, the traditions of the elders - Mk.15:2 3) The law is, a schoolmaster - Gal. 3:24 4) The law is, the handwriting of ordinances Col.2:14 5) The law was, Middle Wall of Partition - Eph. 2:14 I believe you might be in error about the word, "instructor" being a metaphor for the law in Rom. 2:20 I have posted the verses before, and after, in order to see the context. Paul is speaking to the Jews, about how "they" see themselves as instructors, but not about the law being an instructor. Rom 2:19 And art confident that thou thyself art a guide of the blind, a light of them which are in darkness, Rom 2:20 An instructor of the foolish, a teacher of babes, which hast the form of knowledge and of the truth in the law. Rom 2:21 Thou therefore which tea chest another, teachest thou not thyself? thou that preachest a man should not steal, dost thou steal? As far as the James verses. Many might say that the ("GLASS" - "MIRROR") is a metaphor for the law, but when we look at the passage where this metaphor is used, we see it is not speaking about the law, "but the engrafted word", therefore the mirror should not used as a metaphor for the law. Jas 1:21 Wherefore lay apart all filthiness and superfluity of naughtiness, and receive with meekness the engrafted word, which is able to save your souls. Jas 1:22 But be ye doers of the word, and not hearers only, deceiving your own selves. Jas 1:23 For if any be a hearer of the word, and not a doer, he is like unto a man beholding his natural face in a glass: Jas 1:24 For he beholdeth himself, and goeth his way, and straightway forgetteth what manner of man he was. Jas 1:25 But whoso looketh into the perfect law of liberty, and continueth therein, he being not a forgetful hearer, but a doer of the work, this man shall be blessed in his deed. Grace be unto you lightedsteps |
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20 | Did the Romans kill Jesus or did the Jew | NT general | lightedsteps | 223176 | ||
Hi Bob The technical side of your question is answered by saying, because the Jewish nation, was at that time, under the control of Rome, they had to petition the Roman Governor Pilate to execute Jesus, because according to them (the Jewish leaders) He had committed blasphemy, which was punishable by death, they were not allowed by Roman law to execute Him. So even though the Romans carried out the actual execution, it was because the Jews had asked for Him to be executed, not because He had broken any Roman law. Luk 23:4 Then said Pilate to the chief priests and to the people, I find no fault in this man. Mat 27:24 When Pilate saw that he could prevail nothing, but that rather a tumult was made, he took water, and washed his hands before the multitude, saying, I am innocent of the blood of this just person: see ye to it.Mat 27:25 Then answered all the people, and said, His blood be on us, and on our children. But it was done in such a manner so that Jew, and Gentile took part in the Crucifixion of Jesus. His death was not for anything He did, it was because of "OUR ISN" for which He was the sacrificed. As Moran has said, we are all responsible for His death. Grace be unto you lightedsteps |
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