Results 1 - 6 of 6
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why do we have ""Free-Will"? | Bible general | short.terry@yahoo.com | 241029 | ||
God has given mankind "Free-will" since Adam and Eve's time, Why do we have Free Will? | ||||||
2 | Why do we have ""Free-Will"? | Bible general | DocTrinsograce | 241030 | ||
Hi, Terry... Welcome to the forum! Why questions are notoriously difficult, because they address intent. Where, what, when, who, and how can be answered pretty definitively. God often does not tell us why He has done what He has done. Thus it is with your question. In fact, I would be highly suspicious of anyone who tried to give you an answer. The fact of the matter is that He does not tell us why He created man the way He has done. All we can say for certain is that it pleased Him to do so. Thank Him, though, that He has limited us. My free-will got me in to lots of trouble over the years. However, if by His mercy He had not limited what I could will to do, I would have gotten into a lot more trouble! What is more, had He left me to my own will, I should never have sought Him! In Him, Doc |
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3 | Why do we have ""Free-Will"? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241573 | ||
Hello Terry. I do not believe God created angels or man with free will. To me free will is an illusion. Not even God has free will except ONE will, that is, Good. If my conclusions that there is only One God, there is none like Him, and God gives His glory (holiness, righteousness, etc.), to no one, and that by virtue of creation angel and man was created sin-ful ("missing the mark"), that neither angel nor man was created with any Deific attributes or "properties" and that the rerason why man (Adam) sinned was because he was created sin-ful ("missing the mark") Sin comes from sinner. Man sinned because he was a sinner. He is not a sinner because he sinned. Man does not have free will because even the will in man is in bondage to sin (sinfulness), and that that bondage prevents man from being free in any part of his creation or being. The reason why I believe free will in man is an illusion because although we can choose between chocolate and vanilla, or to wear the blue shirt or gray one, the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil was not a tree that made Adam good or evil, but only served to give him the KNOWLEDGE of good and evil. Some say that Adam was "neutral" or "innocent," but I discount that knowing that such "neutrality" or "innocence" was voided when he did good and obeyed God to name the animals. If man sinned because he was created a sinner, then there is no free will. Sin comes from sinner. Sin does not come from holy. The last Adam proved this. Jesus Christ was born sinless and did not sin because of that sinless-ness and His holiness. All our choices to do this or that comes from a will in bondage, and that only God has such a "free will" to do or not do a thing, but that God does not have a "will" to do evil, thus, God has a will to do or not do a thing, but does not have an experimental will to do evil as man certainly does. Ephesians 2:10 (KJV) 10 For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them. Worship, prayers, deeds from un-converted man is sin ("missing the mark") before God, and if these things are done void of the Holy Spirit, then they are sin-ful. The will is not free (saved and unsaved) because we are still in this body of this death and death is the penalty for sin (not necessarily doing acts of evil/sin. Are you following me on this? |
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4 | Why do we have ""Free-Will"? | Bible general | Beja | 241578 | ||
jeremiah1five, You state, "by virtue of creation angel and man was created sinful" and also that the reason man sinned was because he was created sinful." I think this doesn't square up with scripture. One example is Romans 5:12 where he states, "sin came into the world through one man." Paul portrays Adam as transgressing and bringing sin into the world for the first time. How could this be if sin was present by virtue of creations? How could sin have entered into the world through Adam's transgression if the already existing angels were sinful before he was created? But your position holds far reaching consequences. It is the clear testimony of scripture, and our blessed hope that Christ will one day remove sinfulness from his people. Revelations testifies that we are hoping for a city where sin will not enter. In many places, 1 john 3 and Romans 8:29, scripture promises that we will be conformed to the image of Christ. Certainly if we are conformed to the image of Christ we will not be sinful. Yet if what you say is true, and it is impossible for anybody but God himself to ever be righteous and without sin, then you declare null and void these most precious promises of the saints. In Christ, Beja |
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5 | Why do we have ""Free-Will"? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241579 | ||
PART ONE: Hello Beja, Romans 5:12 (KJV) 12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: I used to believe that it was the act of sin by which one is made a sinner, but that understanding did not line up with Scripture. Then that means that if man (hereinto meaning Adam unless suggested otherwise), became a sinner because he sinned, then one would have to have the following as conclusion: 1. man was created holy and/or righteous and sin comes from holy [or that which is holy.] 2. God reduplicated or shared or gave His glory to another (Isa. 44:6; 45:22.) 3. The Law(s) of God are His Commands, and the Commands of God are Law as God means what He says and says what He means, and if it is the Law which shows us to be sinners (Paul said, "I had not known lust except the law said thou shalt not covet" the same can be applied to God's command to man "thou shalt not eat of it..." revealing the existence of a "thou shalt not" in the garden which shows man to be a sinner before he actually performed the act of sin. In other words [applied to man], "I had not known disobedience except the law [God] said 'thou shalt not eat of it.'" 4. If God is the standard by which everything and everyone is judged, and the only two Persons that can stand before a holy God are the Son and the Spirit, then man was eternal BEFORE he sinned and the Scripture saying, "Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever..." would mean man was not eternal and since eternal-ness is an attribute of God and man was not eternal, then in this alone he fell short of the glory of God and Scripture calls this "sin" ["missing the mark."] If man needed the Tree of Life to "live forever" then man was "[fallen] short of the glory of God," or as the word is defined, "sin," or "sin-ful" ["missing the mark," that "mark" being the glory of God.] 5. If man was holy or righteous or eternal (all attributes/nature of God), then man was created with Deific attributes/nature of God [God reduplicated/shared His glory], and if one is to possess one attribute/nature of God then they MUST by necessity possess ALL attributes/nature of God else the man would still fall short of the glory of God for one cannot be half-human and half-Deity. There is no such thing as being "half-pregnant." 6. In Romans 5:12 there is no mention of an act of sin by which man became a sinner, but it does state that by one man [existing, created] sin entered into the world and death by sin..." man would have eventually died even if he did not perform any acts of sin in his life, but that was impossible for the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil did not change man and make him a sinner, the tree only served to give man the KNOWLEDGE of his sinful-ness. |
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6 | Why do we have ""Free-Will"? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241580 | ||
PART TWO Romans 5:12 (KJV) 12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: 7. If it is the act(s) of sin by which man was made a sinner, then one cannot have the Doctrine of Imputation which declares that imputation is a nature-swap: 2 Corinthians 5:21 (KJV) 21 For he hath made him [to be] sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him. if it is our act(s) of sin that made us sinners, then the Scripture might say, "For He [God] made Him [Christ] to be the acts of sin that we might be made the righteous acts of God" which would leave our sin-ful nature still within us and truly offensive to God. The Doctrine of Imputation states that we are imputed the righteousness of God (Peter says "divine nature" 2 Pet. 1:4) and this occurred when Christ was imputed our sin-ful nature (2 Co. 5:21) on the cross and the decree of God that the penalty for sin is death, this is what killed Him. It wasn't the acts of sin that killed Christ, but the sin-ful nature the Holy Child of God was imputed (laid on Him) that killed Him, and if one is to be accurate and honest with Scripture it wasn't sins-many that Christ died for, but sins-ONE that He died for: the sin-ful nature of man in Adam when he was created. John says: "The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world" John 1:29 (KJV) in which the word "sin" is singular (meaning ONE sin that Christ died for - and this would mean the sin-ful nature that man was created with because as Scripture says, "there is only One God, there is none like Him, He gives His glory to no one." If God's Elect people were contemplated in the Mind of God as Holy and Righteous [they were], then He contemplated us as Holy and Righteous in Him because there is no death in God, there is no sin in God, then while we were an "idea" in His Mind, it was by virtue of being created with a body formed from dirt/clay, from created matter (by-product) and any "thing" outside of God is sin or sin-ful for the only Person(s) that can stand before a Holy God is God the Son and God the Holy Spirit. Christ died twice on the cross for the sin-ful nature of man which was the "default" existence of man because there is only One God, there is none like Him, and He gives His glory to no one. Christ died twice on the cross to atone for the two deaths in man [Adam]. Bear in mind that God is just. God does not lay the penalty of death for sin upon the innocent. If death was decreed by God in the garden for sin, then since the animals did not sin and yet they die. They, too, were created sin-ful, or as the word is defined, "missing the mark" [of the glory of God.] Here is one more thing to consider: we are STILL under the penalty for sin. Cemeteries all over the world testify to this truth. I hop I have answered your statements and questions. |
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