Subject: Why do we have ""Free-Will"? |
Bible Note: jeremiah1five, You state, "by virtue of creation angel and man was created sinful" and also that the reason man sinned was because he was created sinful." I think this doesn't square up with scripture. One example is Romans 5:12 where he states, "sin came into the world through one man." Paul portrays Adam as transgressing and bringing sin into the world for the first time. How could this be if sin was present by virtue of creations? How could sin have entered into the world through Adam's transgression if the already existing angels were sinful before he was created? But your position holds far reaching consequences. It is the clear testimony of scripture, and our blessed hope that Christ will one day remove sinfulness from his people. Revelations testifies that we are hoping for a city where sin will not enter. In many places, 1 john 3 and Romans 8:29, scripture promises that we will be conformed to the image of Christ. Certainly if we are conformed to the image of Christ we will not be sinful. Yet if what you say is true, and it is impossible for anybody but God himself to ever be righteous and without sin, then you declare null and void these most precious promises of the saints. In Christ, Beja |