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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What? | Bible general Archive 4 | ewq1938 | 230175 | ||
The verse has been properly translated into English and thus that translation choice stands as accurate and grammatically the "his" must refer to the subject, the King, not to Israel as Israel is not the subject of that verse. What you would need to support your view is something like this: Thus saith the LORD, the King and redeemer of Israel, yea the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God. But that's not what was said nor meant. |
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2 | What? | Bible general Archive 4 | Beja | 230177 | ||
ewq, So the rule of grammer that affirms your position is: because I say so. Noted and rejected. In Christ, Beja |
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3 | What? | Bible general Archive 4 | ewq1938 | 230178 | ||
No because it's been translated properly into English so anyone with knowledge of English grammar can read the verse properly, without distorting it. | ||||||
4 | What? | Bible general Archive 4 | Beja | 230181 | ||
ewq, You have given no grammatical rule, be it Hebrew, English, Greek, or Angelic to support your statement. In Christ, Beja |
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5 | What? | Bible general Archive 4 | ewq1938 | 230184 | ||
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