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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Dose the bible note angels by gender? | Bible general Archive 4 | biblicalman | 228912 | ||
I will only say: There are three general references to 'men' in Genesis 1-10: 'At that time 'men' began to call on the name of YHWH.' (4.25). A general usage but this clearly mainly refers to 'believers' (the godly). 'When 'men' began to multiply on the face of the ground and daughters were born to them --' (6.1). This must signify the generality of men including the above. And it is the daughters of these men who cohabited with the bene elohim (6.2). There are absolutely no grounds for this reference to 'men' as specifically referring to Cainites. If words mean anyhing it refers to the generality of men including believers. The bene elohim (sons of the elohim) are mentioned in Job 1.6; 2.1 where in both cases the reference is to heavenly beings. See also Job 38.7. 'sons of' in Hebrew signifies 'of the same character as, same likeness as ' (compare 'the sons of Belial'). Thus sons of 'the elohim (i.e. of spirit beings - see 1 Samuel 28.13) would be expected to mean 'those of the likeness of spirit beings'. In the light of this it appears to me that rather than being obvious, to make Genesis 6 1-2 refer to a contrast between a so-called godly line who are all destroyed in the Flood (apart from the Noahs), and a godless line (whose names regularly and significantly include God's name) who are destroyed in the same flood is samething like special pleading. |
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2 | Dose the bible note angels by gender? | Bible general Archive 4 | Holmes | 228926 | ||
Matthew 5:9 “Blessed are the peacemakers, for they shall be called sons of God. Luke 20:36 for they cannot even die anymore, because they are like angels, and are sons of God, being sons of the resurrection. Romans 8:14 For all who are being led by the Spirit of God, these are sons of God. Romans 8:19 For the anxious longing of the creation waits eagerly for the revealing of the sons of God. Galatians 3:26 For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus. There is nothing to support your contention that "sons of God" as used in Job 1.6 and 2.1 are referring to demons. Even when "sons of God" makes reference to angels in Job 38.7 it is not referring to fallen angels. Fallen angels or demons would never be referred to as "sons of God." It is not in harmony with scripture. The "Godly" were not destroyed in the flood. The Godly line was destroyed when it became corrupted by intermarriage with the corrupt. All except for Noah and his family. Holmes |
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3 | Dose the bible note angels by gender? | Bible general Archive 4 | biblicalman | 228927 | ||
Hi Holmes You will note that all your references are to huioi theou (sons of God) not to bene elohim (sons of the elohim), and all refer to the New Testament. They are in a totally different category from references in the Old Testament to bene elohim. You have admitted yourself that all references to bene elohim (which is better translated 'sons of the elohim, spirit world' not 'sons of God') refer to angels. KJV in Psalm 8.5 translates 'elohim' as angels (which is confirmed in Hebrews 2.7). You make the mistake of thinking that elohim always means 'God'. It does not. It is also used of 'false gods' behind which are demons (Deut 32.17; 1 Cor 10.20). And it is used by the witch of Endor of spirits which arise from the earth in necromancy (1 Samuel 28.13). That was what she thought that she saw. When referred to angels bene elohim does not mean 'sons of God' it means 'sone of the nature of the elohim, the spirit world'. Satan was one of the bene elohim (Job 1.6; 2.1). He was hardly a 'son of God'. The witch of Endor thought that she saw 'elohim' arising from the earth. They would certainly not have been good angels. 'Demon' simply equates to 'evil angel' (Deut 32.17). You say the godly were destroyed by inter-marriage? Well in that case it was happening well before Genesis 6.1-4. Descendants of Seth who died in the Flood would have been up to 800 years old or more. Thus in many cases their marriages would have been 700 years before the Flood. To me the narrative reads of a fairly recent occurrence within 120 years of the Flood. And there is no suggestion of widespread polygamy. You are of course entitled to interpret as you wish. What I am saying is that the actual Hebrew usage of both the terms 'men' and 'bene elohim' point to a relationship between humans and fallen angels. Even when I may not understand it I prefer to believe what the Scripture teaches. As Satan was clearly one of the bene elohim (sons of God) are you suggesting that he was not a fallen angel? Best wishes |
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