Subject: Dose the bible note angels by gender? |
Bible Note: hi John well as i think that Gen 6.1-4 does actually teach that evil angels (demons) did in some way have intercourse with women, something confirmed by Jude 6, I consider that my answer was based on Scripture. Many well accepted commentaries would confirm it. Kidner says, 'the normal meaning of the actual term 'sons of God' (bene elohim) is 'angels' and nothing has prepared the reader to assume that 'men' now means Cainites only.' He then adds 'the craving of demons for a body, evident in the Gospels, offers at least some parallel to this hunger for sexual experience'. He cites in support 1 Peter 3.19-20; 2 Peter 2.4-6; Jude 6; and more clearly Jewish tradition in Enoch 6.2 and Qumran Genesis Apocryphon col.II. I don't think that you can doubt Kidner's credentials as a Consevative Evangelical scholar. We may not be able to fully explain it. But it is there and quite clear. We must not hide from the difficult things in Scripture. Beside the Bible text both your and my opinions are very secondary. In the Old Testament bene elohim (those in the likeness of the elohim i.e. spirits) always refers to angels. I do not avoid diffciulties by trying to explain them away. But I have no wish to prolong the subject. It is not one of the most savoury parts of Scripture. which is why God brought about the Flood. Best wishes. |