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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Are old words proper for Scripture? | Bible general Archive 4 | Nevvvvine | 210705 | ||
Hi Azure:: Just for clarification, would this following statement fall into the catigory of speculation, when there isn't any difinative proof one way, or the other? Note the beginning of the statement (some think). Some think the music the prophet called for is that sort the Greeks call "harmony," which is the gravest and saddest, and settles the affections: In Peace Nevvvvine |
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2 | Are old words proper for Scripture? | Bible general Archive 4 | stjohn | 210712 | ||
Newwine, I'm sure Azure will get back to you if she wishes, but if I may say, there is nothing inherently wrong with speculation as long as it follows a biblically based foundation, and is given as such e.g. your example would probably be alright. And of course as long as there is nothing objectionable or that goes against the Terms of Use as set forth by our gracious host, The Lockman Foundation. Of course we need to be as objectively biblical as we can to ensure we don't stray from sound orthodoxy. Just remember this is a Bible study not a opinion/speculation study, nor a chat-room. I hope this helps. :-) Shalom John |
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