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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Isaiah 52:14 has "my people" - why? | Bible general Archive 3 | Bauhinia | 189571 | ||
The expression "My people," evidently unbelieving Jews, is in italics indicating its supplied by the translator. The Amplified reads: "Behold, My Servant shall deal wisely and shall prosper; He shall be exalted and extolled and shall stand very high. [For many the Servant of God became an object of horror; many were astonished at Him.] His face and His whole appearance were marred more than any man's, and His form beyond that of the sons of men--but just as many were astonished at Him, so shall He startle and sprinkle many nations." The Bible tells us that Jesus was "being reviled." This would be by God's people, the Jews. However, they would not remain unpunishable. (Matthew 23:37-24:2; 1 Peter 2:23) |
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2 | Isaiah 52:14 has "my people" - why? | Bible general Archive 3 | stjohn | 189573 | ||
Hi Bauhinia, Welcome to the forum. Thanks for your answer, and very well done by the way. You did a very good job of expounding on my answer. :-) Thanks again. However, If you would like amahony to get notification, [via email,] that you have answered the question, you need to click on the original question to answer it. No problem though, we all do that from time to time. ;-) But sense I'm here, I would like to point out if I may, and I hope you don't think I'm just being critical, I do think that it is important to see that this particular group of jews were not "God's people" as you have stated. Jesus called them the devil's children. It was Isaiah that called them "My people." Their genealogy may have been Jewish, but I think I would say, they were certainly not God's people. John 8:44 "You are of your father the devil, and you want to do the desires of your father. He was a murderer from the beginning, and does not stand in the truth because there is no truth in him. Whenever he speaks a lie, he speaks from his own nature, for he is a liar and the father of lies. I'm also not to clear on what you said about them being "unpunishable" and I don't really like to use that term myself, because it is not God's desire to punish. He does "judge" the one's who reject Him though, as He had done in the past with the nation Israel at the hand's of the Babylonians, and the Assyrians. So I hope you can see why I am a little confused by you saying that they were unpunishable, and again I don't really like using that term, punish, God's desire, or, "will" if you please, is that none should perish. And remember, Jesus was broken hearted over Jerusalem, when He "judged" them in Matthew 23:37b. "How often I wanted to gather your children together, the way a hen gathers her chicks under her wings, and you were unwilling." ... I hope this helps you in your study. God bless. John |
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3 | Isaiah 52:14 has "my people" - why? | Bible general Archive 3 | Bauhinia | 189579 | ||
Most Bibles translate Cain using the term "my punishment" in Genesis 4:13. And 1 John 3:12, 15 indicate Cain was "of the evil one and slew his brother," and "everyone who hates his brother is a murderer; and you know that no murderer has eternal life abiding in him." So, he was certainly punished by God and destroyed (perished). (2 Peter 3:9) The unbelieving Jews were punished also. When saying "remain unpunished," I meant they would be called to account for their rejection, although God's people. Regarding the expression "God's people," Isaiah goes on to say: "We did not esteem Him. Surely our griefs He Himself bore, and our sorrows He carried; yet we ourselves esteemed Him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted. But He was pierced through for our transgressions, He was crushed for our iniquities; The chastening for our well-being fell upon Him, and by His scourging we are healed. All of us like sheep have gone astray." (Isaiah 53:3-6) So, Jesus was sent to the lost sheep of the house of Israel, but, of course, those in John 8:44 followed the course of the Devil, because they initially believed, but then rejected the Messiah. Yet, in Acts 2:36-38, 41, Peter invites "all the house of Israel," whom he said "crucified" Jesus, to "repent" and "those who had received his word were baptized." So, it depends what we understand "God's people" to encompass. Jews who knowingly reject Jesus and the truth prove to be not; those who repent at the invitation are. I understood it as refering to the "house" of Israel as a nation by citing Matthew 23:38, not as individuals as in John 8. (See Romans 9:6-8; 11:1-5, 14.) |
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4 | Isaiah 52:14 has "my people" - why? | Bible general Archive 3 | stjohn | 189583 | ||
aah sorry but huh? | ||||||