Results 1 - 8 of 8
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Which one are we not going to keep? | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 125905 | ||
"deliberately, knowingly, and habitually" In the passage in 1 John 3, the key words are: "[deliberately, knowingly, and habitually] practices sin" and "he cannot practice sinning." This phrase once again conveys the idea of habitual sinning (see 1 John 3:4,6). The emphasis here is on the first part of v. 9: "No one born (begotten) of God [deliberately, knowingly, and habitually] practices sin". [8] If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. [9] If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. [10] If we say we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us. 1 John 1:8-10 (ESV) 1 John 3:6-10 (Amplified) 6 No one who abides in Him [who lives and remains in communion with and in obedience to Him—deliberately, knowingly, and habitually] commits (practices) sin. No one who [habitually] sins has either seen or known Him [recognized, perceived, or understood Him, or has had an experiential acquaintance with Him]. 7 Boys (lads), let no one deceive and lead you astray. He who practices righteousness [who is upright, conforming to the divine will in purpose, thought, and action, living a consistently conscientious life] is righteous, even as He is righteous. 8 [But] he who commits sin [who practices evildoing] is of the devil [takes his character from the evil one], for the devil has sinned (violated the divine law) from the beginning. The reason the Son of God was made manifest (visible) was to undo (destroy, loosen, and dissolve) the works the devil [has done]. 9 No one born (begotten) of God [deliberately, knowingly, and habitually] practices sin, for God’s nature abides in him [His principle of life, the divine sperm, remains permanently within him]; and he cannot practice sinning because he is born (begotten) of God. 10 By this it is made clear who take their nature from God and are His children and who take their nature from the devil and are his children: no one who does not practice righteousness [who does not conform to God’s will in purpose, thought, and action] is of God; neither is anyone who does not love his brother (his fellow believer in Christ). |
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2 | Where are these words coming from? | Bible general Archive 2 | Stultis the Fool | 125909 | ||
Where are these words [deliberately, knowingly, and habitually] coming from in your dispensing of the text? I have looked to the Greek text, and they are neither there nor in any bible I have here with me. Also, you define "commits" as "practices." Is it not possible to commit a single act, or must "commit" pertain to a plurality of action? Furthermore, I have consulted the Greek text concerning verse 9, and the word "practicing" does not exist in the text, nor does it exist in my NASB. Additionally, the text clearly states that noone who sins has seen or known him... the word habitually makes no such appearance in the text (Greek or otherwise). I also understand that this thought begins with the author proclaiming that Christ "came to take away sin" and "in him there is no sin." If we abide in Christ, and there is no sin in Christ, and YET we sin, how can this thing be (that there would be sin in Christ)? Has Christ failed to take sin from those who "believe in him and confess him as Lord?" Or is there sin in Christ? The authors proclamation seems to be fairly straightforward, especially in context with the beginning of the Chapter and versus 8 and 9 of chapter 1. |
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3 | Where are these words coming from? | Bible general Archive 2 | DocTrinsograce | 125919 | ||
This position is called antinomianism. It is a hetrodoxical. What kalos is talking about is the orthodox position known as "total depravity." In your opinion, stultis, when Christ said to do what the pharisees said to do, He didn't mean it? |
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4 | Where are these words coming from? | Bible general Archive 2 | Stultis the Fool | 125928 | ||
I am affraid you are confusing what I am saying with a false teaching. I in no way advocate a Christian should depart from the commands of our Lord... I do, however, advocate observing the commandment of Christ, [evidenced John 14:15,21,24 and others] and that commandment being that we are to love one another [John 15:12, others]. I believe "total depravity", if I follow your connotation, to be of little or no use against the flesh [Colossians 2:23]. As far as popular doctrine goes, popularity, in my opinion, neither makes sound doctrine nor debunks/rebukes plain scripture. The truth does not depend upon popular opinion. As to "In your opinion, stultis, when Christ said to do what the pharisees said to do, He didn't mean it?" I cannot descern wether you are in a quandry or mocking me. I am most definately saying that we are not to behave as hypocrites, and Christ declared the Pharisees "hypocrites" MANY times (20 or so KJV). I am arguing that we should not sin, as it is contrary to God. Christ stipulates to forgiven sinners that they are to "go forth and sin no more." I choose to abide in Christ, and as such, I reject sin. My master is righteousness, and I am no longer a slave to sin. We can serve only one master. Ought I to do what men say, or what God says? Please, expound more upon your question. | ||||||
5 | A Command of Jesus | Bible general Archive 2 | DocTrinsograce | 125932 | ||
Dear stultis, please forgive me. I did not seek to mock in any way. I have the heart of a teacher, so I explain and ask questions. Sometimes it is difficult in this format to accurately express ourselves. I never mean to be condescending or mocking. I am far too aware of my own inadequacies. I am a very poor and imperfect follower of our Lord and Savior. I have failed Him far too many times. Even in my best obedience I often spoil it by stealing His glory through spiritual pride. How could I condescend to or mock any child of our Lord knowing my own faults and failings so well? Perhaps the tone came off the way it did because I posted my question in haste. I have a teachers heart so I tend to explain or question. I hope that you will forgive me. The passage that I was referring to was Mat 23:1-3 which I have pasted here: (1) Then spake Jesus to the multitude, and to his disciples, (2) Saying, The scribes and the Pharisees sit in Moses' seat: (3) All therefore whatsoever they bid you observe, that observe and do; but do not ye after their works: for they say, and do not. Here Christ tells both his disciples and the crowd around him to do what the Pharisees say they ought to do. Based on your previous posts I wondered how you interpretted this passage. |
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6 | A Command of Jesus | Bible general Archive 2 | Stultis the Fool | 125944 | ||
Thank you for the clarification, though I see no need for personal interperatation. Christ poses this statement quite well... "the Pharisees sit in Moses' seat", [the pharisees] telling them [the people] to do the things God has ordained, but, He continues, "do not ye after their works: for they say, and do not." Continuing in context, Christ expresses several examples of the Pharisees hypocracy, pointing out that what the Pharisees instruct is righteous, but the things they do are unrighteous. The people were to keep the Law of Moses (which is what the Pharisees were instructing), but the Pharisees deeds (which were deeds of Hypocracy, and pride, and the deeds of those wishing to be "recognized of men"), were unacceptable. Christ is pointing out to those gathered, rather sarcastically, that all the Pharisees do is wicked, so anything they say WHICH THEY DO NOT ALSO OBSERVE, is acceptable for imitation. It is interesting to note that this is followed by the Seven Woes, an assembly of curses directed at the Pharisees, in response to their hypocracy. Additionally, neither Christ, nor the Pharisees (by context of "Moses' seat") are advocating anything the Lord has not commanded, and thus what matter is the advocate in correlation to the commands of God. Again, ought we to do what man says, or what God says. It was not the Pharisees creating the Law of Moses for the people, but rather diseminating the information. Where the Law pertains, it was God (through Moses... or his seat, if you will) performing the instruction. Finally, I am glad to overlook all that you say regarding your inadequacy, as I find your entreatment this occasion to be more than adequate. Please, do not believe that you have offended me greatly, and know that I will gladly forgive anything I can forgive on your behalf, wether or not to me I find it to be sin. |
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7 | Torah vs Mishna | Bible general Archive 2 | DocTrinsograce | 125952 | ||
You state that the Pharisees taught the Law. But is this all that they taught? In addition to the Torah (Moses Law) they were also teaching the Mishna (the oral traditions of Moses' 70 elders). The former is often preceded by "it is written." The latter the latter is often preceded by , "it is said." Yet Christ said "whatsoever" they bid you do, do. Nevertheless, this is the same stuff that Christ condemned as "replacing the law by the traditions of men." What do you make of that? | ||||||
8 | Torah vs Mishna | Bible general Archive 2 | Stultis the Fool | 125962 | ||
I make of that exactly as Christ condemns... these same traditions are a big part of what put him on the Cross. In many instances Christ is criticized for not keeping the traditions (washing hands, etc.), and he is equally critical of those traditions versus the Law (Corban, Seven Woes, etc.). I feel quite certain that he was not speaking of these traditions in the passage in question (don't call them Rabbi, honor their seat in the synagogue, etc.), else this directly contradicts his teachings. By the way, do you know why this thread has been removed from the home page? |
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