Results 1 - 8 of 8
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | speaking in tongues | NT general Archive 1 | jcsav | 122039 | ||
I take it, you did not believe what I said. I exsplain tongues clearly. Paul in 1 Cor. is speaking of the gift on tongues during worship service, not speaking in tongues when one receives the Holy Ghost as was the case in the upper room. This is not just for the Past Church it is for the Church of Today. The question is, who will believe my report? You speak of things you don't know, But I know what I am talking about. God do not ask you If you would like to speak in tongues, that don't even need to be taught. Anywhere the Gospel is preached and teached in its fullness. And hearts are convicted and repent and is baptised in the name of Jesus for the remission of sin, shall receive the Gift of the Holy Ghost. And yes, they will speak. | ||||||
2 | speaking in tongues | NT general Archive 1 | Ken John | 122043 | ||
Yes, thank you kindly, you did explain what you believed speaking in tongues was about. My understanding is from Scripture (KJV) and I am sorry but I must believe what Paul is telling us. The Pentecostal Church which I have attended has no one speaking in tongues but they are all lovely believing followers of the Lord Jesus Christ. The big question has always been, when did these gifts cease ? The answer is that the sign gifts ceased at the end of the Book of Acts. Why was this so? Paul explains this in 1 Corinthians 13:8-12ff. However, what does he mean in verse 10 by "But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part WILL BE DONE AWAY." The gift of tongues, prophecy and knowledge were only in part, they were incomplete. They did not communicate the full knowledge that the Lord had to reveal. In Greek, as in English, this is a neuter pronoun,"that thing which is perfect." Paul was not writing about the coming of "HE who is perfect." but of the coming of a "thing" which is perfect. When it came, then the gifts which were only "in part" would cease. In the letters written during the Acts period, the Lord had only revealed to Paul "part" of the dispensation of grace (Eph 3:2)but He had not revealed the entire message to Paul. It was still only "in part" during the Acts period, but with the close of the Book of Acts, the Lord completed the revelation of the "MYSTERY" (read Eph 3:3,4,9 and Col 1:26,27 etc). "That which is perfect" was finally revealed in ALL ITS FULLNESS to the Apostle Paul and, at that moment, those things which were only "in part" passed away from God's Program. Paul wrote in 1 Corinthians 13:12ff "Now I know in part, but then I shall know just as I also am known." When Paul wrote "now I know in part," he used the common word for "know," the Greek word "gnosis" but then, when he wrote "but then I shall know.." he changes the word from "gnosis" to "epignosis," TO FULLY KNOW. In other words Paul has full knowledge of God's message of Grace for US TODAY. I hope this will help you understand why and when speaking in tongues is no longer today. Peace and Grace in Christ Jesus, Ken John. |
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3 | speaking in tongues | NT general Archive 1 | tgc | 122046 | ||
Greetings Ken John, Overall I must agree with what you have posted. However consider this the sign gifts ceased at the death of the last apostle. And the passage in 1 Cor. you refer to " when that which is perfect is come" Couldn't that be the Bible. Just a thought Would like your input. In Christ Love, tgc | ||||||
4 | speaking in tongues | NT general Archive 1 | Ken John | 122062 | ||
Hello tgc, thanks for your response to my post. I am not too sure what you are meaning "couldn't that be the Bible?" Would you please clarify your question as I am quoting from Scripture (KJV bible) and not my own thoughts. Peace and Grace in Christ Jesus, Ken John. |
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5 | speaking in tongues | NT general Archive 1 | tgc | 122091 | ||
Greetings Ken John, The verse I refer to is 1 Cor. 13:10 " But when that which is perfect has come that which is in part will be done away". What I suggest is that the Bible is that possibly that which is perfect. In Christ Love, tgc | ||||||
6 | speaking in tongues | NT general Archive 1 | Searcher56 | 122096 | ||
tgc, Tongues is temporal and will cease by itself (knowledge and prophecy, are also temporal and will cease when the perfect comes). Tongues is not tied to the perfect coming (1 Cor 13:8-10). Searcher | ||||||
7 | speaking in tongues | NT general Archive 1 | tgc | 122099 | ||
Seacher, Do not take this note the wrong way it is not directed in a mean spirited way at you. But here is the question I pose how important is the question of tongues? I have noticed that this thread is very active and growing all the time which shows me that there is a huge interest in this question but as long as we can agree that tongues is not necessary for salvation and that if an unknown tongue is spoke in a church meeting it has to be translated then checked by scripture then what is the big dael. I relize I have been very active in this thread and I am just throughing out something that has been on my heart. In The Love of Christ, tgc | ||||||
8 | speaking in tongues | NT general Archive 1 | Searcher56 | 122101 | ||
The "unknown" tongue is unknown to the speaker, but is known tongue by someone who is listening. The reason for INTERPETATION (not translation) is because most of the hearers do not understand what is being spoken (1 Cor 14). The reason I get involved is because the truth is trashed ... and I don't want others duped. |
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