Results 1 - 4 of 4
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | language Jesus speak | NT general Archive 1 | Alencon | 118906 | ||
Granted Aramaic and Greek were the common day to day languages, but I always thought that Hebrew was still taught in the Temples. True the knowledge of Hebrew had faded in the diaspora, thus the need for the Septuagint, but in Palestine? In Jeruselem at the site of the Temple? Didn't Ptolemy send to Palestine for the 72 scholars that translated the Torah into Greek in the first phase of the development of the Septuagint? I know that Hebrew was unused as a daily language until the establishment of Israel, but weren't Jews, and especially male Jews, taught at least enough Hebrew to study the scriptures and receive Bar Mitsvah? I just never considered the possibility that a Palestinian Jew like Jesus, or especially a Pharisee, as opposed to say an Alexandrian Jew, might have learned scripture from the Septuagint. When one considers that many of Jesus's quotations of scripture occur during a conversation with an Orthodox Pharisee, the idea just seems a little strange. I would have thought that Pharisees would have little or no respect for the Septuagint over the Hebrew scriptures especially given their preoccupation with the interpretation of the law. Of course I have no evidence one way or the other so I accept your information as something to be considered and, if possible, researched further. As I said, it is very interesting. |
||||||
2 | language Jesus speak | NT general Archive 1 | kalos | 118917 | ||
'Most of the Old Testament quotations in the New Testament are taken from the Greek Bible (the Septuagint)' (page 198 Nelson's New Illustrated Bible Dictionary, Thomas Nelson Publishers, 1995). ____________________ 'Jesus and His Apostles quoted the Greek Septuagint - of this there can be no question. In order to quote the Greek Septuagint, one must speak Greek. (...) 'Thus, we can say with certainty, in the light of over 5000 Greek witnesses to the New Testament, and based upon historical evidence, that it is an absolute impossibility that the New Testament was written in any language other than Greek' (http://www.christianseparatist.org/ast/hist/aramaic.htm) ____________________ 'Jesus,[6] the apostles and the New Testament writers also accepted the Septuagint, using it in conjunction with the Hebrew. 'The Septuagint version having been current for about three centuries before the time when the books of the New Testament were written, it is not surprising that the Apostles should have used it more often than not in making citations from the Old Testament. They used it as an honestly-made version in pretty general use at the time when they wrote. They did not on every occasion give an authoritative translation of each passage de novo, but they used what was already familiar to the ears of converted Hellenists, when it was sufficiently accurate to suit the matter in hand.[8]' 6 One example of Jesus' use of the Septuagint is found in His refutation of the Devil in Matthew 4.4. The Hebrew in Deuteronomy 8.3 has "mouth of the LORD"; the Septuagint has "mouth of God". It is this latter that Jesus quotes. 8 Lancelot C. L. Brenton, "Introduction" to The Septuagint with Apocrypha: Greek and English (Peabody, MA, USA: Hendrickson Publishers, 1986, 1992), p. iv. (http://www.trinitarianbiblesociety.org/site/articles/lxx.asp) ____________________ When all else fails, look it up. We need to do some research and look at facts and forget what we always thought, what we would have thought, or whether some idea seems strange to us. |
||||||
3 | "Your bread"?Or "loaves of Bread"? | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 118992 | ||
Hi Kalos, Your post said that "The Hebrew in Deuteronomy 8:3 has "mouth of the Lord"; the Septuagint has "mouth of God". It is this latter that Jesus quotes." Jesus quoted that in Matthew 4:4. It is interesting to note that the NU text for the companion reference in Luke 4:4 omits that phrase "but on every word of God". These things have been thought about and discussed before don't you think? I wonder if you think that since Lord and God are both the same, we could look instead at the verse concerning the stones. The important thing to my mind is whether this Man is capable of changing the stones into Bread. Question: Does the Greek allow or suggest that there is "possession" involved. In other words could we interpret this verse concerning the stones in both Matthew 4:3 and Luke 4:3 as being "Your bread" or "loaves of Bread"? From the heart, Ray |
||||||
4 | "Your bread"?Or "loaves of Bread"? | NT general Archive 1 | Mommapbs | 119012 | ||
Greetings Ray - re: your question, "whether this Man is capable of changing the stones into bread?" Does this not challenge the Divinity of Jesus and hence the sovereignty of God - which is, what I think, exactly what Satan was attempting? (pun intended) And the tempter came and said to Him, "If You are the Son of God, command that these stones become bread." Mt 4:3 Your question reminds me of the father's request in Mark 9:22 " . . . But if You can do anything, take pity on us and help us!" I can just hear Jesus incredulous response, "If I can" ?!!! (v 23) Might He say also to your question: "If I CAN turn these stones into bread?" And the devil said to Him, "If You are the Son of God, tell this stone to become (Your) bread." Luke 4:3 On another note, Greek or not, is the issue of possession in question in this passage? For God, as Creator, owns everything; He is sovereign over all and is not subject to the demand of ANY created being. (I think we forget this at times!) Thanks for giving me the opportunity to dig deeper into this passage! Blessings, mommapbs Psalm 34:8 |
||||||