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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | language Jesus speak | NT general Archive 1 | Alencon | 118906 | ||
Granted Aramaic and Greek were the common day to day languages, but I always thought that Hebrew was still taught in the Temples. True the knowledge of Hebrew had faded in the diaspora, thus the need for the Septuagint, but in Palestine? In Jeruselem at the site of the Temple? Didn't Ptolemy send to Palestine for the 72 scholars that translated the Torah into Greek in the first phase of the development of the Septuagint? I know that Hebrew was unused as a daily language until the establishment of Israel, but weren't Jews, and especially male Jews, taught at least enough Hebrew to study the scriptures and receive Bar Mitsvah? I just never considered the possibility that a Palestinian Jew like Jesus, or especially a Pharisee, as opposed to say an Alexandrian Jew, might have learned scripture from the Septuagint. When one considers that many of Jesus's quotations of scripture occur during a conversation with an Orthodox Pharisee, the idea just seems a little strange. I would have thought that Pharisees would have little or no respect for the Septuagint over the Hebrew scriptures especially given their preoccupation with the interpretation of the law. Of course I have no evidence one way or the other so I accept your information as something to be considered and, if possible, researched further. As I said, it is very interesting. |
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2 | language Jesus speak | NT general Archive 1 | kalos | 118916 | ||
Jesus spoke in Aramaic 'It is almost universally accepted that Jesus and His disciples spoke in Aramaic. The theory that the New Testament was written in Hebrew is without basis, though I believe that I have heard some suggest that some of the sources may have been in Aramaic. The simple fact is that the Jews lost their facility in Hebrew. That is why the Old Testament had to be translated into the Greek language (this translation is known as the Septuagint). 'You will remember that when Jesus cried out from the cross, "Eli, Eli, LAMA, SABACHTHANI"(Matthew 27:46-47), He was citing the Hebrew text of Psalm 22:1, and no one there seemed to understand it. They thought Jesus was calling for Elijah. How could this fellow’s (Norman Willis') theory* hold up if no one at the cross could understand the Hebrew words Jesus spoke? (Hebrew and Aramaic are related languages, but not the same.)' ____________________ *Norman Willis' theory. Norman Willis claims that the NT may have been written in Hebrew instead of Greek. (http://www.bible.org/docs/qa/) |
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3 | language Jesus speak | NT general Archive 1 | EdB | 118920 | ||
Eli, Eli, LAMA, SABACHTHANI Actually Bible Scholars are at a slight lost to explain this. Eli, and Lama are Hebrew but Sabachthani is thought to be Aramaic. No one is real sure why the two languages were used or if Sabachtani was a Hebrew word that was originally lost. If you go back to Psalm 22 from which this passage was quoted you will see original Hebrew used completely different words. I have heard it explained that Jesus used "pure" Hebrew which was lost when the Children of Israel were in Egyptian Captivity. EdB |
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4 | language Jesus speak | NT general Archive 1 | Hank | 118924 | ||
EdB and others who have been participating in or following this thread: You may find it a treat to hear as well as to read along the Lord's Prayer in Aramaic. Go to www.v-a.com/bible/prayer.html --Hank | ||||||