Results 1 - 2 of 2
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | Ken hepting | 100092 | ||
["Answer me this question: Were there the "Elect" in the Old Testament?" Yes. :)] How could there be? No salvation by the Christ; No "coming unto the Father except the Spirit draw him"...cause He hadn't been given yet. In other words there was no regeneration available so when the 'righteous' died they went and waited to be redeemed. Isn't that right? If not where'd the righteous go? If you say there was none righteous then please explain a few people to me. David, Daniel, Jeremiah...Need I go on? But then, on the other hand, if you say God chose first strictly for His good pleasure then what you are saying is God is a respector of persons. But then that's not so, correct? |
||||||
2 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 100101 | ||
"But then, on the other hand, if you say God chose first strictly for His good pleasure then what you are saying is God is a respector of persons. But then that's not so, correct?" Not with regard to his holy judgment. Every time the KJV speaks of God not being a respecter of persons, it is in reference to His justice. Check it out for yourself. God's divine justice is the same for all persons; otherwise it would not be justice. All of us deserve to go to hell because of our sins. God punishes the sins of all human beings. God does show mercy to some that He withholds from others. He is not morally obligated to extend mercy equally to all His enemies, nor does He do so. --Joe! |
||||||