Results 1 - 14 of 14
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | Ken hepting | 99969 | ||
All infants, John, are without sin because there is no law for them to grasp that they should take into themselves. Therefore they are innocence because where there is no law there is no sin. Romans 4:15 (NASB-U) for the Law brings about wrath, but where there is no *law, there also is no violation. [*Imputed to the understanding] |
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2 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | John Reformed | 100011 | ||
Dear Ken, Doctrine cannot be made on the strength of a single verse. What can you offer in way of support for your use of Rom 4:15? You will also need to prove that departed infants are not elect! Which leads us back to the basis of election in the first place. My personal belief is that ALL infants are among the elect. Rom 9:18 So then He has mercy on whom He desires...It is hard to believe (given the testimony of the whole of Scripture regarding children) that any would be hardened. (Rom 9:18b) John John |
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3 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | Ken hepting | 100019 | ||
[Doctrine cannot be made on the strength of a single verse. What can you offer in way of support for your use of Rom 4:15? You will also need to prove that departed infants are not elect! Which leads us back to the basis of election in the first place.] Is that what I'm doing here? If you can show that infant's, in some way, have an understanding of the law of God and are therefore accountable, I'll agree with you. |
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4 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | John Reformed | 100030 | ||
Gee Ken, why don't you ask me a hard question? :-( But, seriously, God has revealed only that which He is pleased to reveal, and your question must remain unanswered (at least by me). I think that the answer to the fate of innocents may be found in an examination of the covenental relationships that God has established between Himself and men. The first Adam was the covenant head for his wife and all of his posterity. If Eve alone had sinned the race as a whole would not have her sin imputed to them. But when Adam fell we all fell in him. Under the New Covenant Christ (the second Adam) is our covenant head. He did not fail the test but, even though He was tempted, He did not fall! As a result of His perfect obediance, His righteousness has been imputed to those who are in covenant with Him, who are said to be "in Christ". On this foundation, infants must be members of the new covenant if they are to be saved. God has not said how He has achieved this end. Nevertheless, I believe that He has made a way for those who were incapable of actually sinning themselves, but who were subject to judgement because of imputed sin. Matt 24:30,31 "And then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in the sky, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the SON OF MAN COMING ON THE CLOUDS OF THE SKY with power and great glory. "And He will send forth His angels with A GREAT TRUMPET and THEY WILL GATHER TOGETHER His elect from the four winds, from one end of the sky to the other. Notice that there is no mention of any one but "His elect" being gathered together. I have found no evidence that there are "others" in heaven who have been saved apart from union with Christ, which your theory would neccessitate. John |
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5 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | Ken hepting | 100036 | ||
[Under the New Covenant Christ (the second Adam) is our covenant head. He did not fail the test but, even though He was tempted, He did not fall! As a result of His perfect obediance, His righteousness has been imputed to those who are in covenant with Him, who are said to be "in Christ".] Easy now, what about those now dead who have never heard to name of Christ yet lived righteous lives? Where are they and why? |
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6 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 100050 | ||
"Easy now, what about those now dead who have never heard to name of Christ yet lived righteous lives? Where are they and why?" Hell, because no one is righteous (Isaiah 64:6; Romans 3:9 ff.) and: "For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men who suppress the truth in unrighteousness, because that which is known about God is evident within them; for God made it evident to them. For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excuse." --Romans 1:18-20 "For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law; for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified." --Romans 2:12-13 --Joe! |
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7 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | Ken hepting | 100054 | ||
[Hell, because no one is righteous (Isaiah 64:6; Romans 3:9 ff.) and:] OOOOH!! Ouch!! Genesis 6:9 (NASB-U) These are the records of the generations of Noah. Noah was a righteous man, blameless in his time; Noah walked with God. Exodus 23:7 (NASB-U) "Keep far from a false charge, and do not kill the innocent or the righteous, for I will not acquit the guilty. 2 Samuel 4:11 (NASB-U) "How much more, when wicked men have killed a righteous man in his own house on his bed, shall I not now require his blood from your hand and destroy you from the earth?" Psalm 5:12 (NASB-U) For it is You who blesses the righteous man, O Lord, You surround him with favor as with a shield. Psalm 7:9 (NASB-U) O let the evil of the wicked come to an end, but establish the righteous; For the righteous God tries the hearts and minds. Psalm 37:16 (NASB-U) Better is the little of the righteous Than the abundance of many wicked. Psalm 64:10 (NASB-U) The righteous man will be glad in the Lord and will take refuge in Him; And all the upright in heart will glory. |
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8 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 100059 | ||
"OOOOH!! Ouch!!" Good point for discussion. How do you reconcile these quotes with the ones I gave? --Joe! |
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9 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | Ken hepting | 100065 | ||
You're out of context. You must think of God as more loving than you do. Remember, in the fulness of time Christ came. That means God's appointed time when His purposes [and all scripture be fulfilled] for setting His people free [those who recognized Him in whatever fashion and lived with a clear conscience in "their" own way of righteousness outside a written law that wasn't even written] Jesus said in Luke 4:18 (NASB-U) "The Spirit of the Lord is upon Me, Because He anointed Me to preach the gospel to the poor. He has sent Me to proclaim release to the captives, And recovery of sight to the blind, To set free those who are oppressed, Proclaim release? Who'd He release in a physical sense except those in paradise who died with the promise waiting for him to show up? I'd venture a guess that most there didn't know it was Him they were waiting for.. |
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10 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 100072 | ||
You didn't really answer my question. The Bible referred to certain people as "righteous," and then in other places say that "no one is righteous." If we assume that the Bible gives a consistent message, how can we conclude that both statements are true? --Joe! |
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11 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | Ken hepting | 100083 | ||
[You didn't really answer my question. The Bible referred to certain people as "righteous," and then in other places say that "no one is righteous." If we assume that the Bible gives a consistent message, how can we conclude that both statements are true?] By reading the verses in context. Answer me this question: Were there the "Elect" in the Old Testament? |
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12 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 100090 | ||
"By reading the verses in context." I guess that's what I get for trying to engage in serious discussion around here. This is like talking to the high-school freshmen I teach. Let's try again, just for fun: What does the Bible mean when it calls Noah and Lot "righteous"? Is that righteousness different from the righteousness that the OT and Paul declares that "no one is"? If so, how? Answer in an essay of 50-100 words, please. "Answer me this question: Were there the "Elect" in the Old Testament?" Yes. :) --Joe! |
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13 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | Ken hepting | 100092 | ||
["Answer me this question: Were there the "Elect" in the Old Testament?" Yes. :)] How could there be? No salvation by the Christ; No "coming unto the Father except the Spirit draw him"...cause He hadn't been given yet. In other words there was no regeneration available so when the 'righteous' died they went and waited to be redeemed. Isn't that right? If not where'd the righteous go? If you say there was none righteous then please explain a few people to me. David, Daniel, Jeremiah...Need I go on? But then, on the other hand, if you say God chose first strictly for His good pleasure then what you are saying is God is a respector of persons. But then that's not so, correct? |
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14 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 100098 | ||
"How could there be? No salvation by the Christ" No one has ever been saved apart from Christ. Ever. Abraham was saved by Christ. So was David, even if they didn't have the fulness of God's revelation, they were saved by the promise of God's redemption (Romans 4). 'No "coming unto the Father except the Spirit draw him"...cause He hadn't been given yet' The Spirit had not been given in the sense that He was at Pentecost, but one can be drawn by the Spirit without being indwelt by the Spirit. Since Jesus himself said the words you quoted above (and he did so before his crucifixion), apparently this was an OT principle as well as an NT principle (as if these were two different things). "If you say there was none righteous" I didn't say it; David did, and Paul quoted him. "then please explain a few people to me. David, Daniel, Jeremiah...Need I go on?" Yes you do, because I still don't know what you think Paul meant when he quoted Psalm 14 in Romans 3. I am not arguing that the Bible didn't call men "righteous"; it certainly does (don't forget to include Lot, by the way). Now, what about what Paul said? --Joe! |
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