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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | Ken hepting | 100065 | ||
You're out of context. You must think of God as more loving than you do. Remember, in the fulness of time Christ came. That means God's appointed time when His purposes [and all scripture be fulfilled] for setting His people free [those who recognized Him in whatever fashion and lived with a clear conscience in "their" own way of righteousness outside a written law that wasn't even written] Jesus said in Luke 4:18 (NASB-U) "The Spirit of the Lord is upon Me, Because He anointed Me to preach the gospel to the poor. He has sent Me to proclaim release to the captives, And recovery of sight to the blind, To set free those who are oppressed, Proclaim release? Who'd He release in a physical sense except those in paradise who died with the promise waiting for him to show up? I'd venture a guess that most there didn't know it was Him they were waiting for.. |
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2 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 100072 | ||
You didn't really answer my question. The Bible referred to certain people as "righteous," and then in other places say that "no one is righteous." If we assume that the Bible gives a consistent message, how can we conclude that both statements are true? --Joe! |
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3 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | Ken hepting | 100083 | ||
[You didn't really answer my question. The Bible referred to certain people as "righteous," and then in other places say that "no one is righteous." If we assume that the Bible gives a consistent message, how can we conclude that both statements are true?] By reading the verses in context. Answer me this question: Were there the "Elect" in the Old Testament? |
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4 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 100090 | ||
"By reading the verses in context." I guess that's what I get for trying to engage in serious discussion around here. This is like talking to the high-school freshmen I teach. Let's try again, just for fun: What does the Bible mean when it calls Noah and Lot "righteous"? Is that righteousness different from the righteousness that the OT and Paul declares that "no one is"? If so, how? Answer in an essay of 50-100 words, please. "Answer me this question: Were there the "Elect" in the Old Testament?" Yes. :) --Joe! |
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5 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | Ken hepting | 100092 | ||
["Answer me this question: Were there the "Elect" in the Old Testament?" Yes. :)] How could there be? No salvation by the Christ; No "coming unto the Father except the Spirit draw him"...cause He hadn't been given yet. In other words there was no regeneration available so when the 'righteous' died they went and waited to be redeemed. Isn't that right? If not where'd the righteous go? If you say there was none righteous then please explain a few people to me. David, Daniel, Jeremiah...Need I go on? But then, on the other hand, if you say God chose first strictly for His good pleasure then what you are saying is God is a respector of persons. But then that's not so, correct? |
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6 | IS there any answers out there? | NT general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 100098 | ||
"How could there be? No salvation by the Christ" No one has ever been saved apart from Christ. Ever. Abraham was saved by Christ. So was David, even if they didn't have the fulness of God's revelation, they were saved by the promise of God's redemption (Romans 4). 'No "coming unto the Father except the Spirit draw him"...cause He hadn't been given yet' The Spirit had not been given in the sense that He was at Pentecost, but one can be drawn by the Spirit without being indwelt by the Spirit. Since Jesus himself said the words you quoted above (and he did so before his crucifixion), apparently this was an OT principle as well as an NT principle (as if these were two different things). "If you say there was none righteous" I didn't say it; David did, and Paul quoted him. "then please explain a few people to me. David, Daniel, Jeremiah...Need I go on?" Yes you do, because I still don't know what you think Paul meant when he quoted Psalm 14 in Romans 3. I am not arguing that the Bible didn't call men "righteous"; it certainly does (don't forget to include Lot, by the way). Now, what about what Paul said? --Joe! |
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