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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | I just started reading the Bible and.... | OT general | petedavis6263 | 211267 | ||
Greetings Tim, We are not all children of Russia, but we are all children of God. I have a very hard time understanding your theory of duality. Where on earth do you see a mortal human parent establish one set of moral and civil rules for one child and another set of moral and civil rules for another. It is impossible for a parent to love one child more than the other. Although it sometimes might happen, generally, parents love all their children equally. How much less likely would it be for an immortal parent to establish perfect, pure, just, righteous and good laws for one group of His children and then issue a different code for the rest? If what you are saying is true and the Jews are the only ones obligated to obey all of God's laws, where do you draw the line? Why do you suppose God prefers such a system? In Mark 13:10, Jesus says "...the gospel must first be preached to all nations." What is the gospel but the words of Jesus? And Jesus says in Matt 19:17, "...But if you want to enter into life, keep the commandments." The gospel that needs to be preach to all the world includes the commandments. It is clear to me that Jesus is saying for all nations to keep the commandments. In John 14:15, He says, "If you love me keep my commandments." How would you apply that concept to those exempt from the keeping the whole law? If what you say is correct than part of the law applies only to the Jews, part of the law applies only to the Gentiles and part of the law applies to everyone. You're making my head spin, brother Moran. Sincerely, Pete |
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2 | I just started reading the Bible and.... | OT general | Morant61 | 211273 | ||
Greetings Pete! As I mentioned before, my observation was only meant to be a starting point, not an exhaustive teaching about the relationship between the law and the believer. Allow me to make a couple of points. First of all, go back to the Old Testament and read how many times the covenant between God and Israel is mentioned. Remember, a covenant is a contract. A contract is only binding upon those who have entered into the contract. Thus, the requirements of the contract are not binding on us. When was the last time you paid a redemption price for each firstborn son of yourself or your animals (Num. 18:16)? When was the last time you returned all of your property to it's original owner and canceled all outstanding debt (Lev. 25)? When was the last time you sacrificed a lamb at the temple in Jerusalem (which doesn't even exist anymore)? My point was that you are trying to apply every single rule and regulation of a specific contract to everyone which is resulting in much of your confusion about this topic. 2) Secondly, much of the rules and regulations of the Law have already been fulfilled by Christ and as such are no longer in force. Read Hebrews to see this point explained fully. 3) Concerning Mt. 19:17, there is a lot we could unpack in this particular passage, but is it really the Gospel? Notice a couple of things about this passage. a) Jesus was responding to a man who mistakenly believed that he could 'do' something to receive eternal life. So, Jesus gave him something to 'do', and he was unwilling. Jesus' comments are not an explanation of the Gospel, but a challenge to this man's false beliefs. b) The comments were made prior to His death, and to a Jewish man. As I have been pointing out, the contract with Israel was binding upon him at that point because Christ had not yet died. 4) Finally, does part of the law apply only to each group? No, because of points 1 and 2, the Law is no longer binding on any of us. It has served it's purpose and cannot save anyone. Thanks for the questions my friend. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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