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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Three way split? | Bible general Archive 1 | orthodoxy | 5830 | ||
I would say not. Every part of Scripture meant something to the original audience. If Rev. 16 is referring to the tripartite division of Jerusalem between Islam, Judaism, and Christianity, what good would that have done for the first century church? Islam would not come into existence for another seven centuries, and would not take over Jerusalem for a few centuries after that. Also, the land of Palestine ceased to be specifically Jewish in the second century AD. There had not been Jewish/Islamic strife there until this century. If Rev. 16 does refer to Jewish/Islamic/Christian division, it would be of utterly no use to Christians that lived before this century. Scripture does not work this way. More than that though, the church really oughtn't to have any interest in Jerusalem more than any other place on earth. The sacrificial system is _over_ and the temple is no longer necessary. Judaism has served its purpose. Read Hebrews. Now that the new has come the old is dispensed with. |
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2 | Three way split? | Bible general Archive 1 | Searcher56 | 5960 | ||
You said, "Every part of Scripture meant something to the original audience." There are examples of interpetation, like Daniel 8. But, in the previous chapter, the four beasts were not explained. Daniel was wondering about the 10 horns. Dis it mean something to him ... or his readers until the Roman Empire was divided into 10 sections? Steve |
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3 | Three way split? | Bible general Archive 1 | orthodoxy | 5962 | ||
See my other response to this. I believe that prophacy is valid, and often is not fulfilled until centuries after when it is given. But two things are different between ancient nations and the US. First, the ancient nations fit with Biblical narrative, not to mention the prophacy itself, much better than the US. Also, the Israelites knew where these ancient nations were. Would they have understood completely? Not until the prophacy came to pass. But they would not have been totally mystified, as they would have if the passage refers to the US. | ||||||