Results 1 - 6 of 6
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Under part of the Law? | Col 2:14 | mark d seyler | 146101 | ||
Col 2:14 "Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;" Where in the Bible does it say what part or parts (i.e. ceremonial law, sacrificial law) of the Mosaic Law were were fulfilled by Christ, and what part(s) we are still subject to? |
||||||
2 | Under part of the Law? | Col 2:14 | kalos | 146102 | ||
God's laws were NOT nailed to the cross The "Handwriting of Requirements" ____________________ "Some commentators have erred in saying that God's laws have been against us and were nailed to the cross." ____________________ He erased the certificate of debt, with its obligations, that was against us and opposed to us, and has taken it out of the way by nailing it to the cross. Col. 2:14 Holman Christian Standard Bible 'Christ "wiped out the handwriting of requirements that was against us...having nailed it to the cross" (Colossians 2:14, NKJ). What kind of requirements are being discussed? 'The Greek word for "handwriting" is cheirographon, used in common Greek for a document written in one's own hand as legal proof of indebtedness. Some modern translations call it a bond of indebtedness. 'Christ wiped out a note of debt. What kind of debts did Christ cancel? He canceled our spiritual debts, our sins, our transgressions of God's law, and this is what the note of debt refers to. In his crucifixion, Christ symbolically nailed our note of debt to his cross because his sacrifice paid our debts. 1 Peter 2:24 uses a similar analogy. 'The Greek word for "requirements" (KJV "ordinances") is dogmasin, a form of the word dogma, which is used only five times in the New Testament. Dogma can refer to decrees of Caesar (Luke 2:1, Acts 17:7) or apostolic decrees (Acts 16:4). In other writings of that era, dogma could also refer to the commandments of God (3 Maccabees 1:3, Josephus, Against Apion 1, 42) or the commandments of Jesus (Barnabas 1:6, Ignatius to the Magnesians 13:1). 'Commentators generally agree that dogma in Colossians 2:14 refers to God's laws. That makes the most sense in the context, because our spiritual debts have come from breaking God's laws. However, some commentators have erred in saying that God's laws have been against us and were nailed to the cross. 'The meaning becomes more clear if we notice that cheirographon is singular and dogmasin is plural. It is the cheirographon, the note of debt, that "was [singular] against us, which was [singular] contrary to us. And He has taken it [singular] out of the way, having nailed it [singular] to the cross." The last part of verse 14 is about the handwriting, not the requirements. 'God's laws are not against us. It is the note of debt, our sin, that has been against us. The validity of the laws is not in question here; the fact that we incur a debt if we fail to keep the requirements implies that Paul is refering to laws that are valid.' Michael Morrison ____________________ www.wcg.org/lit/bible/epis/Col214.htm Col 2:14 |
||||||
3 | Partly under the Law? | Col 2:14 | mark d seyler | 146104 | ||
Thank you, Kalos. I haven't heard that view of this verse before. I had understood the "handwritten dogma" to refer to the tablets of stone. We could never keep them, so they were against us as an accusator. Do others on this forum agree with Michael Morrison's view? But to follow up on my original question, I have read posts that say parts of the Mosaic Law were fulfilled by Christ, (i.e. the ceremonial, or sacrificial), and other parts were left to stand. Does anyone have a comment on this? |
||||||
4 | Partly under the Law? | Col 2:14 | DocTrinsograce | 146106 | ||
Hi, Mark! I would agree with Morrison's view. It is typical of the orthodox Protestant position. Regarding your question, it is dealt with in the theological term "justification." Here's a good definition: "Justification is a judicial act of God, in which He declares, on the basis of the righteousness of Jesus Christ, that all the claims of the law are satisfied with respect to the sinner." (Berkhof, Systematic Theology, page 513). Look at Hebrews 10:1-18. This is one of the passages on which we base the understanding that Christ satisfied the requirements of the Law for the elect in a way that the sacrifices in the old covenant did only inadequately and temporarily. In Him, Doc PS Here's another pertinent quote, by Charles R. Biggs: "It (justification) refers to the divine act whereby God freely makes humans, who are sinful and therefore worthy of condemnation, acceptable before a God Who is holy and righteous. Justification is forensic (that is, it is 'courtroom language'). We are declared, counted or reckoned to be righteous when God imputes the righteousness of Christ (an 'alien righteousness') to our account. In other words, the Judge of all the earth declares us 'not guilty' when we believe because Christ was pronounced 'guilty' for us on the cross. We are not first made righteous, then declared righteous; we are declared righteous by grace through faith in Christ, then made righteous! When we believe, God imputes Christ's righteousness to us 'as if' it were our own. However, it is HIS righteousness, that is why Paul says in Romans 1:17 that there is a righteousness that has been revealed from God, a righteousness not of our own, but a righteousness revealed from God and freely given to those who do not work, but to those who believe." |
||||||
5 | Partly under the Law? | Col 2:14 | mark d seyler | 146107 | ||
Hi Doc, We receive credit for Jesus' righteous life, as if it were our own, and are declare "just", as having never broken the Law, correct? This refers to all of the Law? I think we agree on this. What I am looking for, (please pardon me if I have not be clear :-) ) is a foundation to the teaching that Jesus fulfilled, say, the "ceremonial law", and so that law no longer needs to be kept, but we are still under the "moral law", and obligated to keep it. I have read posts from a few people on this forum that have used these statements, and I was hoping to hear from someone who can elaborate on that position. I like your quote from Biggs. Very succinct! Love in Christ, Mark |
||||||
6 | Partly under the Law? | Col 2:14 | Ray | 146110 | ||
Hi Mark, Romans 8:1 comes to mind, "Therefore there is no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus, 2 For the law of the Spirit--of life in Christ Jesus --has set you free from the law of sin and death." So it is not what the law or Law can do but rather what God has already done. He condemned sin in the flesh and now we are walking according to the Spirit. From the heart, Ray |
||||||