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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Did Cain marry one of his sisters? | Eph 5:25 | magellan2019 | 174732 | ||
First, the idea that Adam and Eve had additional children prior to Seth is simply not Biblical. Read what is written. I have reviewed the text in many different translations of Genesis 5:4, and *every single one of them* is consistent in saying that AFTER Seth was born, Adam lived for 800 years and fathered many children. Not a single translation that I have read puts Adam fathering additional children prior to the birth of Seth. Even though the specific dates are not mentioned, the order of events is as significant in Biblical writings as specifying dates. As such, the order of reporting of events is, in fact, providing us with the order of events. So the question does remain, where did those other people come from? Since, as described above, they were not from Adam and Eve (and if anyone can identify SCRIPTURALLY how they were actual descendents of Adam and Eve, I will happily concede this whole idea), it really leaves only one option: They were created by God. In fact, the Hebrew word used in Genesis 1:26-27 does not mean a specific man, but rather mankind or humankind, according to the Brown, Driver, Briggs and Gesenius’ "The Old Testament Hebrew Lexicon". If we look at the Bible as directions for living for Him and ending up in eternity with Him, it stands to reason that everything we need to reach Him is written in the Word. The corollary to this is that there are facts and ideas that are true but are not included because they are not germane to our goal of reaching Him and ultimately serving Him in eternity, just as a road map showing the route from Los Angeles to New York would give us the pertinent information for our journey, but wouldn’t mention anything about Japan. Even so, we may be able to infer that Japan exists, perhaps by the mention of a Japanese Embassy, or perhaps an advertisement on the map for a Toyota. By the same token, we can infer things that are not mentioned specifically in the Word by some key phrases in other parts of the Word. The specific example here is that Cain did marry someone and he did build cities for someone. Other people *did* exist. So using this logic, doesn’t the possibility exist that God did in fact create the other people that are mentioned in the Bible, but because their creation is not germane to us seeking, finding, and following Him, they are not clearly identified? Mark, you said, “Since your argument is from the silence of Scriptures, one could assert with Equal Validity that Cain was concerned about the Little People, who had travelled back in time from Middle Earth, or whatever else you want.” I submit that my assertion and yours are not of equal validity as you claim. As you can see from what is written above, I am basing my assertion on logic using what *is* written in The Word as well as acknowledging what is being excluded. I doubt you could say the same for your suggestion of the Little People. Your tone, quite frankly, is one of disrespect and ridicule. I would appreciate a tone that is more suited for discussion and learning rather than derision. WOS, you asked, “So you imply that adding to the Word is wrong but still do it? Where does God tell us there were others before Adam and Eve?” I am not taking away from, nor adding to, God’s Word here. Other people did exist, a Biblical fact, with no explanation directly provided for their origin. The explanation I’m providing is in line with the Hebrew word used in Gen 1:26-27 (see above). Again, the lack of specificity means that in the grand scheme of things, whether He created other people in addition to Adam and Eve is truly not important to becoming a follower of Him. You also asked, “Does it say ‘created man’ or ‘re-created man’?” If God *did* create mankind, then created Adam as I’m suggesting, is that a “re-creation” or “creating a new being”? If God created man in Genesis 1:26-27, is it not possible that He created mankind, then created a separate people starting with Adam and Eve to be the ancestors of His Son and His Chosen People? Between much prayer and study and discussion, this is what I came up with. Seeing that Cain could not have married a sister that had not yet been born. Seeing that there were enough people for Cain to build a city. Seeing that the Hebrew wording is one of mankind, not just one man. And recognizing that in other places in the Scriptures, Adam is identified as first man *relative to Eve’s creation* in 1 Timothy 2:13, and as the bringer of sin in Romans 5:12 – “just as sin entered the world through one man”, which simply defines Adam as the man through whom sin entered the world, as he was the first to be given a command, then subsequently break that command. Adam was made especially by God as the first of the line that would become His Chosen People, the Jews, and the ones who would beget His only Son. |
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2 | Did Cain marry one of his sisters? | Eph 5:25 | mark d seyler | 174737 | ||
Hi Magellan, I apologise for seeming disrespectful, but the truth is, the Bible makes no mention of any humans being in the world except Adam, Eve, and their descendants. If you wish to speculate on others being there, ok, sure, but one speculation is as good as the next. Although, thinking about it, the Little People would probibly produce something opposite of the Nephilim, so that may not be the best example. "And there were shrunken people on the earth in those days..." - Not! What Hebrew text or translation can you cite that actually and explicitly states there were no other children born to Adam and Eve prior to Seth? I would suggest to you that particularly in Hebrew writings, the order of events is not always clearly protrayed in the order of writing. More commonly, the more important events are given first, even when other events which are recorded later actually happened earlier. But nonetheless, I look for specific statements in Scripture. If it's a matter of filling in the blanks, well, we could fill them in in different ways. So I just don't find your argument compelling, and it goes against the idea that mankind was corrupted by one man's, Adam's, sin. How did Adam pass his sin to all men if there were others who were not his descendants? There is a direct Biblical Explanation for where all people came from. God created Adam, from Adam made Eve, and told them to fill the world with people. But I think Acts 17:26 is the most clear in saying that all of mankind came from a common physical source, from Adam. Love in Christ, Mark |
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3 | Did Cain marry one of his sisters? | Eph 5:25 | magellan2019 | 174845 | ||
You said, “…the truth is, the Bible makes no mention of any humans being in the world except Adam, Eve, and their descendants”. Your statement here is not quite accurate in that there are people mentioned that are not called their descendents, one of whom is the topic of discussion here – Cain’s wife. You are assuming descendents because that is what has always been accepted, and what has always been taught. However, the Bible is The Truth, not traditional teachings. It will stand to scrutiny when tradition falls by the wayside. The bottom line here is that even calling Cain’s wife his sister is as much, if not more, speculation than what I am stating, because what I am stating is not only not contradictory to anything in the Word that any of us have yet found, as I will demonstrate below and in a response to WOS, but it is also supported by external sources, something the “sister” theory just doesn’t do. Archaeology has proven the events, people, and timeline of the Bible. Yet, for some reason, it can’t prove the traditional theory that Adam and Eve were actually the first two people. Rather, it proves the contrary; that there is no way Adam and Eve could have been literally the first two humans. Since the sciences are, quite simply, the study of the observation of God’s creation, those observations must be reconcilable with the Word! Why are we afraid to do that? Note, I am saying “reconcilable”, not supercede. “What Hebrew text or translation can you cite that actually and explicitly states there were no other children born to Adam and Eve prior to Seth?” You are correct in one thing – that there are times when events are reported according to their significance rather than their chronology. However, when that is done, words of relative chronology are not used; that is, it will not say, “Event A happened (most significant event), *then* Event B happened (less significant event) unless it is chronologically correct also. In Genesis 5:4, as I stated previously, it is written very clearly that *AFTER* Seth was born, Adam lived 800 years and fathered additional children. This is where I cite that it specifically states there were no other children born to Adam and Eve prior to Seth. Can you provide anything that actually and explicitly states that my statement here is wrong? “…it goes against the idea that mankind was corrupted by one man's, Adam's, sin. How did Adam pass his sin to all men if there were others who were not his descendants?” How does this go against that idea? Romans 5 says sin entered the world through one man. It also says, “…for before the law was given, sin was in the world. But sin is not taken into account when there is no law.” Adam sinned, and his sin is accountable because God gave him a command, the first law. God making other men before Adam and Eve does not change the other events in Genesis. It does not go against Adam’s accountability for the sin of all mankind, because no law had been given to man by God until He created Adam. Prior to the law being given, sin was apparently present, but it was not accountable because there was no law, according to Romans 5. As far as how he passed his sin down to us? Even if there were millions of other people prior to Adam, sin was passed to all people today and at the time Jesus because we all are descendents of Adam. How is that possible if there people prior to Adam? Because of Genesis 7:21-23. Which brings us to your last statement: “But I think Acts 17:26 is the most clear in saying that all of mankind came from a common physical source, from Adam.” Actually, Acts 17 does not mention Adam’s name at all. Verse 26 says, “From one man he made every nation of men, that they should inhabit the whole earth.” All men did come from a common physical source, and yes, the source was Adam, but through Noah, according to Genesis 7:23, which says, “…men and animals and the creatures that move along the ground and the birds of the air were wiped from the earth. Only Noah was left, and those with him in the ark.” All of mankind that God made in Genesis 1:26-27 were killed in the flood; only Noah, his wife, his sons and their wives survived. Therefore, all those that existed prior that had not been given the law, those that were not accountable for Adam’s sin, they all perished, leaving behind only those God would hold accountable for sin, only those who were physically descended from Adam. In this way also, Jesus’ sacrifice could be for all men, no man would be exempt from needing His Grace. So how is all of this mere speculation again? Can you provide as much Biblical evidence for Adam and Eve having additional children? Can you provide any further evidence that Adam and Eve were actually the first two humans, rather than the first two of God’s Chosen people, those who would beget His Only Son, those who would need His Redemption? I'd love to hear it if you can. |
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