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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What does Romans 2:12 mean? | Rom 1:19 | Emmy | 118943 | ||
Hi: Romans1:9 Means that people from the beginning of time of them being on earth, right to today, God has a hand in their consciousness, and gives all people evidence that He is God. If people ignore this, they have no excuse that will hold up at judgement. This was true for gentiles who did not have the OT laws, and is still true for people today after Christ, whose offer of salvation is open to ALL. It says HE died once for ALL, so there is no exception. Strange as it seems at first, just as in OT times Gentiles did not have the law, but are going to be held accountable, so today in NT times, those that do not hear the gospel, still have within them knowledge of God. If they follow through with what God has put in their consciousness, and draw close to Him, Christ will save them as He has promissed that HE died for ALL. If one thinks this is not possible, namely to be saved by Christ without having heard the gospel, one should be able to explain the following: Does it say in scripture that one HAS to hear the gospel in order to be saved by Christ? How did all American Natives get to hear the gospel before America was discovered by Europeans? If they did not hear the gospel, and it is necessary to hear it to be saved, then how can they be included among Christ's offer of salvation is for ALL ? My point is this: The gospel has not been heard by ALL. The offer of salvation is open to ALL. Therefore the gospel is not necessary for salvation. Even if the gospel was heard by all today with modern communications, it was not so for the last 2000 years. To us the only answer is that God makes himself known to man as explained in Romans 1 above. This knowledge must be enough to have people draw near to God and He to them, to save them as he saves anyone who hears the gospel and draws near and is saved. I am not in any way diminishing the importance of the gospel, but pointing out that as in OT God could reach and save Gentiles who did not hear the law, So in NT times HE can reach and save people who have not heard the gospel, since it says he died for all, but all have not heard the gospel. What say you? Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
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2 | What does Romans 2:12 mean? | Rom 1:19 | Rowdy | 118954 | ||
I have to agree with your overall statement as indicated in several posts in response to 118406. It's interesting how many different opinions people have on this subject. I haven't figured out how they could misunderstand such a basic concept. God bless. --Rowdy PS: I'm assuming you already know how to use the Quick Search function at the right of your screen. |
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