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NASB | Romans 1:19 because that which is known about God is evident within them; for God made it evident to them. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Romans 1:19 because that which is known about God is evident within them [in their inner consciousness], for God made it evident to them. |
Subject: What does Romans 2:12 mean? |
Bible Note: Hi Hank: Your question: Why do you place the burden on me to provide Scripture to prove your four statements false when you have not provided Scripture to prove them true? If I am wrong, I desire to know. You can help by trying to point out contradictions in my thinking. The statements: 1. Jesus died so that all sinners would have a chance at salvation. 2. No one can be saved except through Christ. 3. Jesus desires that all turn from sin and repent so they can be saved. 4. Not all have been aware of the gospel in their lifetime. My reasons for thinking this: Statement 3: 1 Tim 2:1 First of all, then, I urge that entreaties and prayers, petitions and thanksgivings, be made on behalf of all men,2 for kings and all who are in authority, in order that we may lead a tranquil and quiet life in all godliness and dignity. 3 This is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, 4 who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. Verse 4 says Christ desires that all men come to salvation. Statement 2: Acts4:12 "And there is salvation in no one else; for there is no other name under heaven that has been given among men, by which we must be saved." Statement 1: The only way to be saved is through His death and resurrection, therefore He died So all men would have a chance at salvation. Statement 4 is not in the gospel Here is why I believe it to be true. The scriptures were not written till well after a generation after the time of Christ. Therefore many died without having seen or heard the gospel Paul got as far as Rome, but the church was mostly in hiding, so very few in Rome actually Got to hear him, let alone those in Norway, and Russia. His letter got to the churches he wrote, but most others in these communities did not read or hear them. Can one argue that the gospel got to China, Australia, Mexico, Canada, South and Central America within the 1st say 100 years after Christ ? During exploration of the New World, is there record that one nation or tribe in any land were talking about, or had heard about the story of Christ being crucified so that they could be saved ? It seems that if the Europeans had found a tribe in the New World teaching Christ, then that would have been noticed and recorded In the excavations of cities or villages of cultures in the new world, has any one ever found any hint that these cultures made religious relics as evidence of Christ crucified ? Just because there is no evidence, does not constitute proof that it did not exist logically speaking, but, let me ask you, do you think the gospel existed in America before 1492 when Columbus came? If these statements are all true: 1. Christ died so all have a chance at redemption 2. Christ desires that all come to salvation 3. The only way to salvation is through Christ 4. Not all heard the gospel. Then the only conclusion that can be drawn is Christ desires to and can save those who have never heard the gospel. Can you point out a problem with either the scriptures quoted, or the logical truth of the statements made. Sincerely Henry and Emmy |