Results 1 - 4 of 4
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Baptism-What Does the Bible Teach? | Acts 2:38 | kalos | 133366 | ||
Baptism-What Does the Bible Teach? ____________________ 'If you think you're on safe theological ground because of a pet verse, better look twice. Simple prooftexting has its perils.' ____________________ 'Is baptism necessary for salvation? Is it necessary to be water baptized after one's profession of faith before one can receive the gift of forgiveness and new life through regeneration? Or is baptism a proper act of obedience after one becomes a Christian? 'In the first case the order would be faith, then baptism, resulting in salvation. In the second case the order would be faith, resulting in salvation, followed by baptism. 'Verses seem to support both sides. In Acts 2:38 we read, "And Peter said to them, 'Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.'" If the repentant believer is baptized "for the forgiveness of sins," then repentance and belief are not enough. The order here appears to be faith, then baptism, resulting in salvation. 'This verse seems very straightforward. To some, simply quoting it is enough. The problem comes when one flips over a few pages to Acts 10:44-48. (...) 'Notice what's happening. Peter preaches the Gospel to Cornelius and his household. In the midst of Peter's sermon, the Holy Spirit falls on those listening and they manifest spiritual gifts. 'This is irrefutable evidence to Peter that these Gentiles have "received the Holy Spirit just as [he] did." Other verses make it clear that possessing the Holy Spirit in the New Testament sense is proof of salvation (see Ephesians 1:13-14 and Romans 8:9). 'After these Gentiles are regenerated, Peter announces it is appropriate for them to be baptized. The order in Acts 10 is faith, resulting in salvation, followed by baptism. 'Here's the problem. Apparently Acts 2 teaches that salvation comes after water baptism, and Acts 10 indicates it can come before. This is a contradiction. Unless these passages are harmonized, merely asserting one verse against another actually does violence to the authority of God's Word. 'This is when we must ask our question: Are either of the passages equivocal? That is, are there any legitimate alternative readings? 'The Acts 10 passage seems completely inflexible in its meaning. The sequence of events leaves no question (though I'm open to suggestions) that the order is faith/regeneration/baptism. Peter's response is unmistakable. 'Further, when the Jews later take issue with Peter about his involvement with Gentiles, he simply recounted the event and they were satisfied (Acts 11:1-18). In this passage regeneration clearly follows faith, not baptism: 'If God therefore gave to them the same gift as He gave to us also after believing in the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I that I could stand in God's way?" And when they heard this, they quieted down, and glorified God, saying, "Well then, God has granted to the Gentiles also the repentance that leads to life." (Acts 11:17-18) 'Notice baptism isn't even mentioned here, only the salient details of regeneration: repentance, faith, and salvation. By all appearances, Acts 10 is unequivocal. Baptism isn't necessary for salvation. 'What about in Acts 2? Is it possible this passage means something different than it appears to at first? On closer inspection the answer is yes. The key is in the grammar. 'In Acts 2, the command to repent is in the plural, as is the reference to those who receive the forgiveness of sins (i.e., "All of you repent so all of you can receive forgiveness"). The command to be baptized, however, is in the singular (i.e., "Each of you should be baptized"). 'This makes it clear that repentance, not baptism, leads to salvation, since an individual's baptism cannot cause the salvation of the entire group. Individual (singular) baptisms do not result in corporate (plural) salvation. 'As it turns out, then, the phrase "for the forgiveness of sins" modifies repentance, not baptism. A more precise rendering might be, "Let all of you repent so all of you can receive forgiveness, and then each who has should be baptized." 'If there is any question about which translation of Acts 2:38 is appropriate, Acts 10 and 11 give us the answer. Clearly, Peter's Gentiles were not getting baptized in order to bring about their salvation. They were baptized as a result of salvation. The clear (unequivocal) teaching in Acts 10 and 11 informs the ambiguous (equivocal) nature of Acts 2:38.' ____________________ To read the entire article, go to: (http://www.str.org/free/solid_ground/SG9909.htm) |
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2 | Baptism-What Does the Bible Teach? | Acts 2:38 | Aixen7z4 | 133446 | ||
We should go back to kalos’ post, I would suggest, and thank him for a masterful job of exposition. It was not logic that he used, as in “Don’t you think …?”, but a very noble and necessary practice of allowing Scripture to shed light on Scripture. I would only add this, that while we say that water baptism follows salvation and is not a part of it, we should not at the same time minimize the importance of water baptism. It is very significant. According to Peter, it is the answer of a good conscience toward God (1 Peter 3:21). Baptism is the natural next step after a person professes faith in Christ, and it should happen promptly because there is no suggestion in scripture that we delay it. There is a serious problem, I think, and I am not sure what to think, if a new believer refuses to be baptized. Unfortunately, some believers refuse or delay baptism as if o prove the point it is not essential. Some churches find it prudent to give a new believer words of assurance of salvation before getting into the subject or the activity of water baptism. Sometimes there are issues because the person may have been baptized before. It may then be necessary to show that baptism follows salvation and does not precede it or facilitate it. But the new believer should receive it. Whereas most churches almost always do baptize new believers, one may wonder why this discussion comes up so often. If there is repentance and faith and baptism, then why is there an issue? It seems that those who emphasize baptism are concerned not only that it take place but that we believe it was essential to salvation. To do it is not enough, they say, we must profess belief that it was essential. Scripture seems to say that acceptance of baptism is an evidence of faith (Mark 16:16; Acts 8:36,37) and it is therefore received with joy, even as there is joy in heaven over one sinner who repents (Luke 15:7,10). Both the new believer who is receiving it and those who observe it have reason to rejoice, as in Acts 16:33,34. |
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3 | Baptism-What Does the Bible Teach? | Acts 2:38 | Rowdy | 133451 | ||
Just wanted to get your response on all the points in my answer to Kalos' article, copied here for reference. I do have to agree with you, Kalos is an excellent Bible student and handles himself very well but I see nothing wrong with "Don't you think..." approach when it's warranted by God's Word. Peter encourages this kind of thinking with his guidance 1 Peter 3:15 But sanctify the Lord God in your hearts, and always be ready to give a defense to everyone who asks you a reason for the hope that is in you, with meekness and fear; The Greek word here for denfense includes the idea of using our "logical mind" in defending this hope and faith that is within us. So when the Bible is not absolutely crystal clear as in this discussion on baptism, we find we must use our minds and try to see the intent behind our Father's Words. I would also refer you to my Post No 133381 and ask for your response thereto. From my earlier post: I appreciate your contribution to this discussion and looking forward to others' participation. But you didn't cite any verses that either say "believe only" or teach such a concept. Please cite such a verse if you can. Also, I'd love to see your response to my challenge to BradK about the connection between these processes of getting into God's family 1) the Jewish family or Isrealites during the OT era and 2) the christian family under the Headship of Jesus Christ. Specifically, I'm comparing the process by which a foreigner was allowed into these two fellowships. In the former, the process was consumated with circumcision before which a man was NOT considered part of the family. In the latter, the process of Plan of Salvation if you prefer is consumated with baptism as shown throughout the Book of Acts. By the way, I agree that we are INDEED saved by Grace through our faith as you've cited in Eph 8. Part of that faith process involves total submission to Christ's Terms and Conditions as cited throughout the 87 verses on this subject of baptism. You see, our God really requires a lot more than just belief for the devil believes. So, apparently it's NOT all that big a deal to believe in God or His Son. The big difference that both God and His Son want to see is how we respond to our belief. That's one reason why Christ says Matthew 7:21 Not everyone who says to Me, 'Lord, Lord,' shall enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of My Father in heaven. Looking forward to your reply. God bless. Rowdy |
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4 | Baptism-What Does the Bible Teach? | Acts 2:38 | Aixen7z4 | 133527 | ||
I think your point is well taken, that baptism allows one to be publicly recognized as a part of the church. Believing on the Lord Jesus Christ is a matter of entrusting our eternal destiny into his hand (2 Timothy 1:12). It is more than giving mental assent to some facts about him. It is done from the heart (Romans 10:10) and others cannot see it. Baptism is a thing of outward appearance that is shown to them afterwards. And yes, it is a sign that the person’s repentance was genuine, that the heart is now right with God (1 Peter 3:21). It may be a part of faith as well if it says that we trust him enough to obey him. |
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