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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Faith: "Let's talk about it later? | Acts 17:31 | Ray | 66977 | ||
The NKJ and Amplified have one more pronoun in their rendering of this verse. Act 17:31b, "*He has given assurance of this to all..." If this pronoun should be there, of whom is the word speaking? The second part of the question is: why is faith not mentioned in our translations when it is indeed in the Greek? From the heart, Ray |
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2 | Faith: "Let's talk about it later? | Acts 17:31 | Morant61 | 67006 | ||
Greetings Ray! Cool! A Greek question! :-) 1) Pronoun: The pronoun is implicit in the verbs of the passage, but is not included seperately. I'm sure you remember that Greek verbs include person, number, and gender. So, a Greek sentence does not have to contain a seperate pronoun, but sometimes does for emphasis. In this case, the 'He' would be the same one who 'fixed a day'. 2) Why no faith? The literal reading is: "faith after giving to all after raising Him from dead." The question is whether or not the context here refers to giving 'saving' faith to all or to giving evidence to all by raising Jesus from the dead. The translators seem to have chosen the later, which is an appropriate translation - though an unusual one. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | Faith: "Let's talk about it later? | Acts 17:31 | Ray | 67027 | ||
Hi Tim, I'm glad to hear from our resident Greek scholar. 1) You say that the 'He' would refer back to the pronoun dealing with fixing a day. Could it refer back to the previous phrase, verse 30, where the pronoun is God? Is there a rule of Greek involved? 2) Do you think that the added pronoun has added emphasis or does it make one wonder if the pronoun is talking of God or of the Man? I like the NASB translation here. 3) I am not looking for a verse to argue over whether faith is offered to all or not. But, rather, the word faith is in the Greek and it shows that our faith is based on the resurrection of this Man through whom we are going to be judged by God. The resurrection is the only proof we need to base our faith upon. From the heart, Ray |
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4 | Faith: "Let's talk about it later? | Acts 17:31 | Morant61 | 67091 | ||
Greetings Ray! 1) No rule is involved other than context. I just went back to the first main verb, but you are correct, the subject of the sentence is God in v. 30. 2) The pronoun isn't really added. Greek verbs, unlike English verbs, include gender, person, and number. For instance: lego - means I say legeis - means You (sing) say legei - means He says legomen - means We say legete - means You (pl) say legousi - means They say The form of the verb actually includes a built in pronoun. Acts 17:31 is a little different the sense that participles do not include person. But, the person is clear from the main verb. So, it is perfectly correct to translate with the pronoun 'he'. 3) It would be an interesting argument! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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