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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is the Law abolished? | Matt 5:17 | kalos | 137669 | ||
Jesus spoke in Aramaic "The people of first century Palestine, including Jesus, spoke the Aramaic language. However, early Christian writings were written entirely in Greek, the universal language of the Roman Empire." (http://www.twopaths.com/faq_kjv.htm) 'It is almost universally accepted that Jesus and His disciples spoke in Aramaic. The theory that the New Testament was written in Hebrew is without basis, though I believe that I have heard some suggest that some of the sources may have been in Aramaic. The simple fact is that the Jews lost their facility in Hebrew. That is why the Old Testament had to be translated into the Greek language (this translation is known as the Septuagint). 'You will remember that when Jesus cried out from the cross, "Eli, Eli, LAMA, SABACHTHANI"(Matthew 27:46-47), He was citing the Hebrew text of Psalm 22:1, and no one there seemed to understand it. They thought Jesus was calling for Elijah. How could this fellow’s (Norman Willis') theory* hold up if no one at the cross could understand the Hebrew words Jesus spoke? (Hebrew and Aramaic are related languages, but not the same.)' ____________________ *Norman Willis' theory. Norman Willis claims that the NT may have been written in Hebrew instead of Greek. (http://www.bible.org/docs/qa/) |
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2 | Is the Law abolished? | Matt 5:17 | MJH | 137681 | ||
I hate to disappoint, but they spoke Hebrew. It is hardly even disputed anymore. If you wish I can point to some sources making that point so I need not plagiarize here (against the rules.) Besides, it is far off the topic of Matt 5:17. Also, I will concede that the text may very well have been originally written in Greek, but that is not my personal belief. That being said, it hardly matters since they did speak Hebrew as commoners in 1st Century Judea and particularly in the Galilee (Galil). The history of the Septuagint explains why they translated that into Greek and it had nothing to do with the Jews in Palestine. In fact, it had little to do with the Jews (Hebrews) wanting it done. It was a Greek book enthusiast who desired to have them in his library at Alexandria. You can read Josephus for the whole story which is very VERY fascinating. |
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3 | Is the Law abolished? | Matt 5:17 | DocTrinsograce | 137721 | ||
I'm one of those weird folks that think that Jesus generally taught in Greek. If you are interested in my arguments along these lines, do a search on my screen name and the words "spoke Greek." Of course, I'm not dogmatic on this point. ... opinionated, yes... dogmatic, no. :-) | ||||||
4 | Is the Law abolished? | Matt 5:17 | MJH | 137732 | ||
Your comments on Jesus speaking Greek were fascinating and I am thankful for the chance to read them. They educated me. I often said that in Jerusalem, Jesus would have had to speak another language other than Hebrew because of the vast numbers of people from outside the region. Greek was my third guess, but with your posts, maybe it will become my first. This does not explain how he spoke to His disciples and those in Galilee. I still firmly believe that He spoke Hebrew (you even make that point to some degree.) I am not the best source for this argument and making it would plagiarize, so see the book, “Understanding the Difficult Words of Jesus: New Insights From a Hebraic Perspective.” by Bivin and Blizzard. I even have an extra copy I could send you. Since you are interested in languages, then this is a MUST READ. Believe the book or not, it still provides a treasure of information and would be useful. On other notes: I was taught that Jesus built in Sepphoris, a city being built when he was a child and closer to Nazareth (building with stone.) Caesarea was a long way off, but of course we really can only speculate. You mentioned Pilot and not knowing much about him. Check out Paul Meier’s book about the man. Very fascinating and explains why he might have acted the way he did when Jesus was condemned (something that “The Passion” got right – or close). On your explanation of Jesus quoting Deut. 6:5 and adding “mind”; you are of course right in knowing that the Greek had to add “mind” to get the full meaning, but couldn’t the Gospel writers have made the change, and Jesus still teach it in Hebrew? Thanks for the lively discussion, and for not calling me names because I study Hebrew culture, language and 1st century rabbinic teachings to more fully grasp who Jesus is. (I’m sorry, did that sound sarcastic?) |
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5 | Is the Law abolished? | Matt 5:17 | DocTrinsograce | 137739 | ||
Hi, MJH... I believe it is important to understand the cultural and historical context of scripture. There is so much there to know and learn. Of course, more important than getting all these details right, is walking closely to Him! You're right about the possibility that the Gospel writers added "mind" in order to clarify Christ's meaning. That is, in fact, a quite plausible explanation. Consider, therefore, the dialog between Jesus and Peter in John chapter 21. You've probably read how -- or you've looked at it yourself -- the word "love" changes in the exchange "Peter, lovest thou me?" Aramaic, like English (and modern Arabic), has only a single word for "love." The subtleties in this discussion would be utterly lost if they were not spoken in Greek. The more I understand things about ancient Greek -- and I'm no scholar, I just read a lot! -- the more I am impressed at how it was a perfectly ready-made language by which God could convey His truth. Almost as though He arranged it that way! :-) I'll look into the books you mentioned. Thank you for the suggestions! By the way, I reserve the right to call you names for things other than your study habits. (Just kidding!) In Him, Doc PS I thought Nazareth and Caesarea were only about 15 miles apart? (Geography is not my strong suit.) |
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6 | Is the Law abolished? | Matt 5:17 | MJH | 137745 | ||
John chapter 21 the word Love is used in its various Greek forms. YES! I like that. Hebrew, amazingly, also has 3 words for love. Ahava, Ryah, and Dod (possibly more) but these match the Greek and are all in the Song of Solomon. Jesus would have used Ahava, and Peter use Ryah. Again, when John told this part of the story he could translate the subtleties into Greek from Hebrew. -It's neat to see how John was following Peter and Jesus. I picture Jesus taking Peter off alone to have this discussion, and then John tails behind just close enough to hear. Read it with this in mind and see if you get that feeling. - I also agree that God most definitely arranged the languages that way. I see that over and over again in studying Hebrew, and I imagine the same with Greek. God after all does plan well. :) In Him, Marvin |
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7 | Is the Law abolished? | Matt 5:17 | DocTrinsograce | 137763 | ||
Hi, Marvin... Well, if there are 3 words for love in Aramaic as there are in Hebrew (and I do not doubt that you are correct) then it doesn't add credence to my theory. I read somewhere recently that neither Aramaic nor modern Arabic have these levels of "love." It was said/written in the context of Christ's words about "hating family." According to whoever it was I was listening too, they said that this expression made perfect sense in Arabic. That they tended to emotional extremes which was a very Semitic-like characteristic in their cultures. (Sorry, pain meds are making me kind of blurry today.) I love to put flesh on the bare bones of the scripture narrative as you have done. Sometimes, due to the way the ancients wrote, it sounds stilted and cold. But we have to keep in mind that these were flesh and blood people. They exuded love, hate, despair, anguish, rage, passion, etc. (Kirkegard commented on how much he loved the pure humanity in scripture.) But we tend to hear the words as though they echoed in a large, cold, empty marble cathedral. For example, we hear, "Why beholdest thou the mote that is in thy brother's eye, but considerest not the beam that is in thine own eye?" When what he was probably saying was something like, "What is your problem??? You're worried about a speck of dust in *his* eye when you got this big old two by four hangin' outta yours???" Sorry, I don't mean to sound irreverent. I'd better stop my ramblings while I'm ahead. In Him, Doc |
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8 | Is the Law abolished? | Matt 5:17 | MJH | 137901 | ||
Doc, please see my post in this thread under the heading "sources?" My post begins, "I've spent several hours...." and was posted on 11/20/04 at 11:53pm I mention this to you because you seemed interested in the discussion and I didn't want you to miss what will hopefully be my final post on the matter regardless of whether my point is accepted. Hope all is well with you and your illness. God Bless, Marvin |
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