Results 1 - 2 of 2
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | EXPLAIN MATTHEW 24 VS. 1-10 | Matt 24:1 | Coper44 | 184838 | ||
WOS, Let me start by saying that most recently I simply answered JCARTER's question regarding Matt. 24:1-10. I thought that was the primary reason for this forum. The answer I have given is from Scripture. It focuses on the context of the passage. You'll notice that I didn't rely on man's wisdom or tradition as some have accused. After discovering the preterist perspective, I've re-read the Scriptures and I was passing that knowledge on so JCARTER could consider another perspective. The post to which you refer (183345) is true and sincere. As I've written before, I've been studying preterism for about a year now. Prior to my understanding of preterism I had been taught dispensationalism for many years. That's the reason for the statement "I've been introduced to it rather recently". I've discussed this issue with friends and family and they dismiss it rather than deal with it Scripturally and honestly. I don't mean to be disruptive and my intention is not just to argue and debate for the sake of it. I would appreciate it if you, or one of the others who have responded, would be open and honest and let me know exactly why the points I've made with regard to the time frame and audience relevance are wrong. So far I've received more questions back than answers. Some of you have tried to avoid my questions by getting into things like: Who was the man of sin?, When did the stars fall from the heavens?, What about the rapture?, What date was Revelation written?, etc. Please answer the following questions: Why is it so unreasonable to believe that Jesus was speaking directly to His disciples about things that would occur in their lifetime when He used the word "you" so many times throughout the Olivet Discourse? Matt. 24:32"From the fig tree learn its lesson: as soon as its branch becomes tender and puts out its leaves, you know that summer is near. 33So also, when you see all these things, you know that he is near, at the very gates. 34Truly, I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place. When compared to James 5:7-9 written between 50AD-60AD isn't a near to them coming the only logical, normative way to understand it? Again, couldn't this be the reason that Peter, James, John (and even Paul), would teach their audiences that the coming of Christ was near? These are all legitimate questions that so far have gone unanswered. I'm sure you can understand my frustration. You're saying I'm wrong and some are reacting in a very unchristian way rather than showing where I've erred. And, yes I am prepared to be directed back to Scripture. Coper |
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2 | EXPLAIN MATTHEW 24 VS. 1-10 | Matt 24:1 | Wild Olive Shoot | 184877 | ||
Okay coper, I’ think I do owe you an answer in hopes of alleviating your frustration. Know this, I was not attempting to refute or debate when I originally posted, my hopes were that this subject which has seemingly been going for some time now, would be deferred at least for a while. Simply because the discussions I have followed and read were not undertaken as much in an edifying manner as they were a biased forceful manner. But I’m in no position to make that assertion so I apologize and will properly render my response to you. Also know this, it not necessarily an area I want to debate. I’m answering only because I think it proper per your request. You’ve asked the following: Q1. “Why is it so unreasonable to believe that Jesus was speaking directly to His disciples about things that would occur in their lifetime when He used the word "you" so many times throughout the Olivet Discourse?” A1. If you look at the text, “you” wasn’t the only term referred to many times. He warned of many times the fact that there would be many who claimed He already came. My main problem with your position is based on the fact that you read into the first part of the Olivet Discourse as literal, so long as it supports your position, and then as soon as it doesn’t, you spiritualize the text to make it fit the rest. What prompts you to suddenly change your interpretation at some mid-point? I’m not a scholar, but logically, I can deduce that if Scripture doesn’t call for the change in interpretation, we shouldn’t apply it. The fact is you “have” to spiritualize what hasn’t been fulfilled to the eye in order for your opinion to make sense such as the judgment of the wicked, Matthew 24:40 and so forth. The parables subsequent also show that there would be a somewhat lengthy return if understood properly. Q2. “When compared to James 5:7-9 written between 50AD-60AD isn't a near to them coming the only logical, normative way to understand it?” A2. I see James indicating that no matter the times, we aught to be living in a state of expectancy. Where are our hearts if we do not? If Christ’s return isn’t considered imminent, where do we stand? I suppose we don’t stand simply because we have not the fear of impending judgment nor the hope of relief when Christ does return. We should be patient under our trials, long suffering, as the example put forth is that of Job. Q3. “Again, couldn't this be the reason that Peter, James, John (and even Paul), would teach their audiences that the coming of Christ was near?” A3. It is always near brother and with each passing day it is more so. They as well as we are taught to be ready for it. Scripture also informs us that Christ’s return was already in question and the Apostles had to put down the heresy that had already crept in. 2Timothy 2:16 – 18 Jesus when speaking of his return, did so in a manner that informs us that it will be visible, not spiritual or invisibly. You can’t properly explain and show for fact that all of the discourse concerning His return has taken place and been visible. Let God fulfill His prophecies on His own time. Forcing them in to a context so they can be understood more easily to suit us, is simply handling the Word in a careless manner. Matthew 24:34, 35: 34 Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled. 35 Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away. “1. Christ here assures us of the certainty of them (Mat_24:35); Heaven and earth shall pass away; they continue this day indeed, according to God's ordinance, but they shall not continue for ever (Psa_102:25, Psa_102:26; 2Pe_3:10); but my words shall not pass away. Note, The word of Christ is more sure and lasting than heaven and earth. Hath he spoken? And shall he not do it? We may build with more assurance upon the word of Christ than we can upon the pillars of heaven, or the strong foundations of the earth; for, when they shall be made to tremble and totter, and shall be no more, the word of Christ shall remain, and be in full force, power, and virtue. See 1Pe_1:24, 1Pe_1:25. It is easier for heaven and earth to pass, than the word of Christ; so it is expressed, Luk_16:17. Compare Isa_54:10. The accomplishment of these prophecies might seem to be delayed, and intervening events might seem to disagree with them, but do not think that therefore the word of Christ is fallen to the ground, for that shall never pass away: though it be not fulfilled, either in the time or in the way that we have prescribed; yet, in God's time, which is the best time, and in God's way, which is the best way, it shall certainly be fulfilled. Every word of Christ is very pure, and therefore very sure.” – Matthew Henry Stand in His grace, WOS |
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