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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | EXPLAIN MATTHEW 24 VS. 1-10 | Matt 24:1 | Coper44 | 184829 | ||
CDBJ, The book of Revelation was written approx. 65AD-66AD. The claims of a late date (95AD-96AD) are not based on solid evidence. They are based on a few questionable quotes. Again, you're always better off trusting Scripture as opposed to man's wisdom as stjohn has pointed out. The internal evidence from the book of Revelation itself shows that John wrote it during the earlier date. For example look at Rev. 11:1- Then I was given a measuring rod like a staff, and I was told, "Rise and measure the temple of God and the altar and those who worship there... If John in fact wrote The Revelation in the 90's you would expect at least a mention of the catastrophic events of 70AD just twenty five years earlier. Instead he says that he is told to measure the temple. This would be possible in 65AD, but not 95AD. I have asked those who hold to the late date if the events described in Revelation took place soon after 95AD since John clearly said that the events would take place shortly. There is no evidence of anything happening around 100AD that comes close to the events of 70AD. I would encourage you to read the several books out there that challenge the claims of a late date theory. I believe the evidence shows that all the NT books were completed by 70AD so John didn't miss the return of Christ at all! Coper |
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2 | EXPLAIN MATTHEW 24 VS. 1-10 | Matt 24:1 | Wild Olive Shoot | 184834 | ||
Dear coper, From what appears to be your first post, #183345, you stated the following: “I'm aware that this line of thinking is called Preterism. I've been introduced to it rather recently and I can't disprove it. It has become an obsession with me and I would appreciate it if someone could shed some light on this subject and redirect me back to a more proper understanding of Scripture.” For someone who is asking to be redirected back to a more proper understanding of Scripture, you sure do put up a mighty struggle. Was it that you simply wanted to disrupt all you could or are you seriously in want of being redirected? Just be open and honest in regard to your intentions, because at this point brother I’m of the opinion that you just want to argue and debate. If you’re fond of preterism, so be it. Just don’t continually push your stance on those who aren’t. I’m of the opinion that ones eschatological view doesn’t necessarily have any bearing on the status of a person before God. But many others don’t hold that opinion. Stand in His grace, WOS |
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3 | EXPLAIN MATTHEW 24 VS. 1-10 | Matt 24:1 | Coper44 | 184838 | ||
WOS, Let me start by saying that most recently I simply answered JCARTER's question regarding Matt. 24:1-10. I thought that was the primary reason for this forum. The answer I have given is from Scripture. It focuses on the context of the passage. You'll notice that I didn't rely on man's wisdom or tradition as some have accused. After discovering the preterist perspective, I've re-read the Scriptures and I was passing that knowledge on so JCARTER could consider another perspective. The post to which you refer (183345) is true and sincere. As I've written before, I've been studying preterism for about a year now. Prior to my understanding of preterism I had been taught dispensationalism for many years. That's the reason for the statement "I've been introduced to it rather recently". I've discussed this issue with friends and family and they dismiss it rather than deal with it Scripturally and honestly. I don't mean to be disruptive and my intention is not just to argue and debate for the sake of it. I would appreciate it if you, or one of the others who have responded, would be open and honest and let me know exactly why the points I've made with regard to the time frame and audience relevance are wrong. So far I've received more questions back than answers. Some of you have tried to avoid my questions by getting into things like: Who was the man of sin?, When did the stars fall from the heavens?, What about the rapture?, What date was Revelation written?, etc. Please answer the following questions: Why is it so unreasonable to believe that Jesus was speaking directly to His disciples about things that would occur in their lifetime when He used the word "you" so many times throughout the Olivet Discourse? Matt. 24:32"From the fig tree learn its lesson: as soon as its branch becomes tender and puts out its leaves, you know that summer is near. 33So also, when you see all these things, you know that he is near, at the very gates. 34Truly, I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place. When compared to James 5:7-9 written between 50AD-60AD isn't a near to them coming the only logical, normative way to understand it? Again, couldn't this be the reason that Peter, James, John (and even Paul), would teach their audiences that the coming of Christ was near? These are all legitimate questions that so far have gone unanswered. I'm sure you can understand my frustration. You're saying I'm wrong and some are reacting in a very unchristian way rather than showing where I've erred. And, yes I am prepared to be directed back to Scripture. Coper |
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4 | EXPLAIN MATTHEW 24 VS. 1-10 | Matt 24:1 | DocTrinsograce | 184854 | ||
Dear Coper, A small percentage of the Scriptures are of an eschatological nature. We are a Study Bible Forum. If our interest is to study the Bible, that interest will reflect the broader spectrum of Biblical topics. A healthy desire for every word that proceeds from the mouth of God, will satisfy itself in the many themes of the Bible. A monothematic obsession is evidential of significant spiritual deficiencies, fails to benefit the forum as a whole, and ignores the ultimate purpose of our gracious host. In Him, Doc |
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5 | EXPLAIN MATTHEW 24 VS. 1-10 | Matt 24:1 | Coper44 | 184858 | ||
Doc, Your point is taken in the spirit in which it was given. I appreciate your input. I'm not sure if you've made yourself aware of this latest thread or not. As I stated earlier, I simply answered a question from JCARTER in regards to Matt. 24:1-10. I have no control over the way others have responded to my post. Maybe your comments would be better directed to them. Should I have ignored the subsequent posts directed to me? If that is the best way to approach this forum please let me know. It would save a lot of time just to post my opinion of a particular issue and ignore any feedback from others. However, that doesn't seem to be the standard others are held to. As you know, preterism is a legitimate method of interpreting Bible prophecy. Most commentaries on Revelation mention preterism as one of about three or four ways to understand the book. And, I believe it is beneficial to establish a correct premise, even in eschatalogical matters, as we go about understanding the Scriptures as a whole. I don't blame you for characterizing me as monothematic because I have limited my posts, up to this point, to issues of eschatology. But, I believe you are reaching your conclusion prematurely. I have studied most christian doctrines, and I've also studied The Witnesses, Mormons, Adventists and many other cultic views. Thanks again for your time, Coper |
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