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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why do catholic call Mary mother of God. | Amos 1:1 | Emmaus | 69708 | ||
Joe, I am not so sure about you fears of Cathlics erring in the way you described. The whole One Person, two natures concept was hammered home pretty hard in the grade school catechism classes of my generation. Others I can't speak for, but I do know what the Church teaches. What her children learn in every case I could not say. As for Christ's finite human nature, don't you think it was transformed and elevated by the Resurrection? Wasn't Christ death and Resurrection meant to transform and elevate our very natures? Something to meditate on. These are just my own personal immediate thoughts in response to you comment, not any theological or doctrinal response. Emmaus |
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2 | Why do catholic call Mary mother of God. | Amos 1:1 | Reformer Joe | 69709 | ||
I live in a part of the country populated pretty heavily by Hispanics, and knowing the history of the Virgin of Guadalupe, I would like to know another Catholic's take on a situation like this: The other day I saw a window decal on a truck with the Virgin, and around it, written in Spanish, were the words "My life is in your hands." To me, statements like this seem to cross the line from "veneration" to "worship." As a member of the RCC, would you stand behind a statement like the one I saw or not, and please let me know why or why not. You wrote: "As for Christ's finite human nature, don't you think it was transformed and elevated by the Resurrection?" Transformed, yes. I am not sure what you mean by the word "elevate." I do not think that Christ's human nature took on the divine characteristic of being infinite (in order that people all over the world could be feasting on His body and blood in a physical sense at this very moment and at all times throughout the day somehwere on the planet since Pentecost), and I think St. John's vision in Revelation 1 would lend some support to that position. Also, I believe that the Bible teaches that one day all of God's people will one day be everything Christ is in His human nature. Passages like 1 Corinthians 15 and the end of Philippians 3 seem to support this? Do you agree, and do you think this means we will be infinite as well? Thanks! --Joe! |
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3 | Why do catholic call Mary mother of God. | Amos 1:1 | Ray | 69728 | ||
Joe, See Heb 13:8 question, 12-13-02?...Ray | ||||||