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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Did Moses seen God face to face? | Ex 33:20 | Morant61 | 26916 | ||
Greetings Johnny! I agree that Moses knew what he was writting! He also wrote in Ex. 33:20 that no man can see God's face and live. So, which statement is right! We either have two choices! 1) Moses contradicted himself (which I don't believe)! or 2) We have misunderstood one of the statements! The best option seems to be that "face to face" is a common saying that describes intimacy and doesn't necessarily describe a literal face to face encounter. This especially makes sense in light of the Numbers passage which defines what face to face means - clearly, without riddles. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | Did Moses seen God face to face? | Ex 33:20 | jlpangilinan | 26960 | ||
Joh 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. Ok Tim, I would like to weigh here is the statement of John that "No man has seen God at any time" Did John emphasize any part of God? Did John mentioned face only or back or right jew of left hand? He said "No man hath seen God at any time;" I dont care it is back or feet but the God Himself. As a believer, of course I understand all those things, that bible will never contradict itself. But I need of course a solid explaination when somebody will ask the same question to me. God bless, Johnny |
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